Practice Exam PTCB

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  • 1/92 Questions

    How many times a day would a patient take his or her medication if it is "tid"?

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About This Quiz

This PTCB Practice Exam assesses knowledge crucial for pharmacy technicians, focusing on medication management, prescription abbreviations, and drug classifications. It prepares candidates for the PTCB certification, ensuring they understand operational standards and patient care protocols.

PTCB Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    What id the meaning of the prefix "osteo-"?

    • Bone

    • Cell

    • Lymph

    • Muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone
    Explanation
    The prefix "osteo-" refers to bone. This can be seen in words like osteoporosis (a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones) and osteotomy (a surgical procedure involving the cutting of bone).

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  • 3. 

    How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn"?

    • As directed

    • As needed

    • By mouth

    • By rectum

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "prn" stands for "pro re nata" which means "as needed" in Latin. Therefore, if the directions read "prn," the patient would take the medication as needed, based on their symptoms or specific circumstances.

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  • 4. 

    What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription?

    • At bedtime

    • Hours

    • House

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. At bedtime
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "hs" on a prescription stands for "at bedtime." This indicates that the medication should be taken before going to sleep. It is important to follow the instructions on the prescription to ensure proper timing and dosage of the medication.

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  • 5. 

    Which schedule of medications has no medical use in the United States and possess an extremely high potential for abuse?

    • Schedule I

    • Schedule II

    • Schedule III

    • Schedule IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule I
    Explanation
    Schedule I medications have no accepted medical use in the United States and have a high potential for abuse. They are considered to be the most dangerous drugs and are tightly regulated. These drugs are often classified as illegal substances and include drugs such as heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their high potential for abuse and lack of medical use, they are not prescribed by healthcare professionals in the United States.

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  • 6. 

    What is the meaning of the term "non rep"?

    • Do not repeat

    • No known allergies

    • Nothing by mouth

    • Refill

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not repeat
    Explanation
    The term "non rep" is an abbreviation for "do not repeat." In a medical context, it is often used to indicate that a certain medication or treatment should not be repeated or administered again. This could be due to various reasons such as potential adverse effects, completion of the prescribed course, or a change in the patient's condition. It serves as a reminder for healthcare professionals to avoid repeating a specific intervention or medication.

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  • 7. 

    The pharmacy technician receives a prescription fro Flexeril 10mg and the instructions read "i po tid". What is the total daily dose?

    • 10mg

    • 20mg

    • 30mg

    • 40mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 30mg
    Explanation
    The prescription "i po tid" is an abbreviation for "1 by mouth three times a day". Since the prescription is for Flexeril 10mg, and the patient is instructed to take it three times a day, the total daily dose would be 10mg x 3 = 30mg.

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  • 8. 

    What do the first five digits of an NDC number represent?

    • Drug item

    • Drug manufacturer

    • Drug package

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug manufacturer
    Explanation
    The first five digits of an NDC number represent the drug manufacturer. This means that these digits provide information about the company that produced the drug. The NDC number is a unique identifier for each drug product, and it is used for various purposes such as tracking and billing. By looking at the first five digits of the NDC number, one can determine which manufacturer is responsible for the production of the drug.

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  • 9. 

    How long must a laminar airflow hood be on before being used?

    • 15 min

    • 30 min

    • 1 hr

    • 2 hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 min
    Explanation
    A laminar airflow hood must be on for at least 30 minutes before being used. This duration allows the hood to reach and maintain a stable and consistent airflow pattern, ensuring the removal of any contaminants or particles from the working area. It also allows the hood to achieve the required sterility and cleanliness levels necessary for carrying out sensitive procedures or experiments. A shorter duration may not provide sufficient time for the hood to establish the desired airflow conditions, while a longer duration may be unnecessary and result in energy wastage.

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  • 10. 

    What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: " i gtt os bid"?

    • For external use only

    • For the ear

    • For the eye

    • Use rectally

    Correct Answer
    A. For the eye
    Explanation
    The signa "i gtt os bid" indicates that the medication should be administered in the eye. Therefore, the auxiliary label that should be included on the container is "For the eye".

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  • 11. 

    What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?

    • Disease

    • Hardening

    • Removal

    • Vomiting

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal
    Explanation
    The suffix "-ectomy" refers to the surgical removal of a specific body part or tissue. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical procedure involving the removal of a particular organ or structure. For example, an appendectomy refers to the removal of the appendix, while a mastectomy refers to the removal of the breast tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is "Removal."

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  • 12. 

    Where would a buccal tablet be placed?

    • Betweeen the cheeks

    • Orally

    • Rectally

    • Under the tongue

    Correct Answer
    A. Betweeen the cheeks
    Explanation
    A buccal tablet is designed to be placed between the cheeks and gums, where it dissolves and releases medication directly into the bloodstream. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption and avoids first-pass metabolism in the liver. Placing the tablet orally or rectally would not achieve the desired effect, and placing it under the tongue is known as sublingual administration, which is a different route of drug delivery.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription?

    • Doseage schedule

    • Drug name

    • Drug strength

    • Patient name

    Correct Answer
    A. Doseage schedule
    Explanation
    A dosage schedule refers to the specific instructions regarding when and how often a medication should be taken. This information is typically included in a hospital medication order to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage at the appropriate times. In a retail prescription, the dosage schedule is usually not provided as it is assumed that the patient will follow the standard instructions provided by the pharmacist or doctor. The other options listed (drug name, drug strength, and patient name) would typically be found on both a hospital medication order and a retail prescription.

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  • 14. 

    What does "NPO" mean on a prescription?

    • Do not refill

    • Do not place in mouth

    • Do not repeat

    • Nothing by mouth

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing by mouth
    Explanation
    The term "NPO" on a prescription stands for "Nothing by mouth." This means that the patient should not consume any food or drink orally. This instruction is often given before medical procedures or surgeries that require an empty stomach to prevent complications. It ensures that the patient's digestive system is clear and reduces the risk of aspiration or vomiting during the procedure.

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  • 15. 

    How many days would a prescription of 30 tablets last if the directions were " 1 tab tid ac"?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    If the directions on the prescription are "1 tab tid ac", it means that the patient should take 1 tablet three times a day with meals. Therefore, in a day, the patient would take a total of 3 tablets. Since there are 30 tablets in the prescription, dividing 30 by 3 gives us 10. Therefore, the prescription of 30 tablets would last for 10 days.

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  • 16. 

    Which law ensures a safe environment for employees?

    • ADA

    • Any willing provider

    • OBRA

    • OSHA

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Act, ensures a safe environment for employees. This law sets standards and regulations to protect workers from hazards in the workplace, including physical, chemical, and biological hazards. OSHA requires employers to provide a safe and healthy workplace by implementing safety measures, providing training and education, and maintaining records of workplace injuries and illnesses. By enforcing these regulations, OSHA aims to prevent workplace accidents, injuries, and illnesses, and promote the overall well-being of employees.

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  • 17. 

    What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug?

    • 0

    • 1

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug is 5. This means that a prescription for a schedule III drug can be refilled up to 5 times before a new prescription is required. It is important to follow the guidelines and regulations set for schedule III drugs to ensure proper usage and prevent misuse or abuse.

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  • 18. 

    What hospital committe is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary?

    • Infection Control Committee

    • Nursing and Pharmacy Committee

    • Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

    • Product Evaluation Committee

    Correct Answer
    A. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
    Explanation
    The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary in a hospital. This committee is composed of healthcare professionals, including pharmacists and physicians, who review and evaluate medications for safety, efficacy, and cost-effectiveness. They make decisions about which drugs should be included on the formulary, which drugs should be restricted, and which drugs should be removed. The committee also ensures that the formulary is regularly updated to reflect new medications and treatment guidelines.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following interpretations of the signa "1 cap qid ac and hs" is correct?

    • Take 1 caplet by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime

    • Take 1 capsule by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime

    • Take 1 capsule by mouth after meals and before bedtime

    • Take 1 capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime

    Correct Answer
    A. Take 1 capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime
  • 20. 

    What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if he or she receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen?

    • Bypass the screen and continue to process the prescription

    • Contact the physician and ask that a diffrent drug be prescribed

    • Inform the patient that you cannot fill the prescription because the physician made an error

    • Inform the pharmacist of the message

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the pharmacist of the message
    Explanation
    When a pharmacy technician receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen while processing a prescription, the appropriate action is to inform the pharmacist of the message. The pharmacist is responsible for reviewing and assessing any contraindications or potential issues with the prescription. By informing the pharmacist, they can address the contraindication and make an informed decision on how to proceed with the prescription, such as contacting the physician or suggesting an alternative drug. It is not the pharmacy technician's role to bypass the screen, contact the physician directly, or inform the patient of an error made by the physician.

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  • 21. 

    What size container would you use in dispensing 240ml of a liquid medication?

    • 2oz

    • 4oz

    • 6oz

    • 8oz

    Correct Answer
    A. 8oz
    Explanation
    To dispense 240ml of liquid medication, you would need to use an 8oz container. This is because 1oz is equivalent to 30ml, so 8oz would be able to hold 240ml of the liquid medication.

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  • 22. 

    What term refers to the process involved in the preparation of sterile products to prevent contamination of the product?

    • Aseptic technique

    • Extemporaneous compounding

    • Geometric dilution

    • Levigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Aseptic technique
    Explanation
    Aseptic technique refers to the process involved in the preparation of sterile products to prevent contamination of the product. This technique involves creating and maintaining a sterile environment, using sterile equipment and materials, and following strict protocols to minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the product. It is crucial in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and pharmacies, where sterile products are prepared for patient use. Extemporaneous compounding, geometric dilution, and levigation are not directly related to preventing contamination in the preparation of sterile products.

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  • 23. 

    If the patient is to receive 2.4g of medication/day and the drug is available in 600mg tablets, how many tablets are needed for a day's dose?

    • 0.5

    • 1

    • 4

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    To calculate the number of tablets needed for a day's dose, we divide the total medication required (2.4g) by the dosage of each tablet (600mg). This gives us 4 tablets, as 2.4g is equal to 2400mg. Therefore, 4 tablets are needed for a day's dose.

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  • 24. 

    When would you take a medication if the directions stated "ac"?

    • After a meal

    • At bedtime

    • Before a meal

    • In the morning

    Correct Answer
    A. Before a meal
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "ac" stands for "ante cibum" in Latin, which means "before a meal." Therefore, if the directions state "ac," you would take the medication before having a meal.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is true concerning nitrofurantoin?

    • It should be taken as a loading dose

    • It should be taken at breakfast only

    • It should be taken with alcohol

    • It should be taken with food

    Correct Answer
    A. It should be taken with food
    Explanation
    Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Taking it with food helps to increase its absorption and effectiveness. This is because food slows down the emptying of the stomach and allows for better absorption of the medication in the intestines. Therefore, it is recommended to take nitrofurantoin with food to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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  • 26. 

    What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 10mg MS IM q 4 h prn pain?

    • Inhale 10mg of morphine sulfate every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • Insert 10ml of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed for pain

    • Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain
    Explanation
    The correct interpretation of the given signa is to inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. The abbreviation "IM" stands for intramuscular, indicating the route of administration. The abbreviation "q" stands for every, and "h" stands for hours. "prn" stands for as needed, indicating that the medication should be administered only when the patient experiences pain.

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  • 27. 

    Where should needles be placed after use?

    • In a biohazard container

    • In a red plastic bag

    • In a sharps container

    • With normal trash

    Correct Answer
    A. In a sharps container
    Explanation
    Needles should be placed in a sharps container after use. This is because sharps containers are specifically designed to safely store and dispose of used needles. They are made of puncture-resistant materials to prevent accidental needle sticks and are labeled as biohazardous waste containers. Placing needles in a sharps container ensures proper containment and minimizes the risk of injury or infection to others who may come into contact with the needles.

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  • 28. 

    Which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?

    • Extended insulin zinc

    • Isophane insulin

    • NPH insulin

    • Regular insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular insulin
    Explanation
    Regular insulin can be added to an IV solution because it is a short-acting insulin that can be rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. It is commonly used in emergency situations or in hospital settings where quick and precise control of blood sugar levels is required. Adding regular insulin to an IV solution allows for a more direct and immediate delivery of the medication into the bloodstream.

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  • 29. 

    How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn" 

    • 120ml

    • 150ml

    • 450ml

    • 480ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 150ml
    Explanation
    The prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn," which means the patient should take 5cc (5 milliliters) of guaifenesin with codeine by mouth every 4 hours as needed. To determine the total amount needed for a 5-day supply, we need to calculate the number of doses in 5 days. Assuming the patient takes the medication every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in a day (24 hours divided by 4). Therefore, in 5 days, there would be a total of 30 doses (6 doses per day multiplied by 5 days). Since each dose is 5cc, the total amount needed for a 5-day supply would be 150cc (30 doses multiplied by 5cc). Therefore, the correct answer is 150ml.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a local anesthetic?

    • Benzocaine

    • Butorphanol

    • Neostigmine

    • Zolmitriptan

    Correct Answer
    A. Benzocaine
    Explanation
    Benzocaine is a local anesthetic commonly used to numb the skin or mucous membranes. It works by blocking nerve signals in the body, temporarily numbing the area where it is applied. Unlike general anesthetics, local anesthetics do not cause loss of consciousness or affect the entire body. Benzocaine is often found in over-the-counter products such as throat lozenges, dental gels, and topical creams for pain relief. It is a popular choice for minor surgical procedures, dental work, and temporary relief of pain and itching.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is true about generically equivalent drugs?

    • Chemically diffrent, but are expected to produce same therapeutic outcome and toxicity

    • Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration

    • Contain different active ingredients

    • Priced exactly the same as brand name drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration
    Explanation
    Generically equivalent drugs are chemically identical in terms of their strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration. This means that although they may have different brand names, they contain the same active ingredients and are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity as the brand name drugs. The term "generically equivalent" implies that these drugs are interchangeable and can be substituted for each other without any significant differences in efficacy or safety.

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  • 32. 

    Which dosage form is defined as a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic, containing water and alcohol, which may be medicated or not?

    • Elixer

    • Emulsion

    • Enema

    • Syrup

    Correct Answer
    A. Elixer
    Explanation
    An elixir is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic dosage form that contains both water and alcohol. It can be medicated or not, meaning it may or may not contain medication. Elixirs are commonly used for oral administration and are designed to be palatable and easy to swallow. They are often used to deliver medication in a liquid form, making it easier for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills or tablets.

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  • 33. 

    In what schedule is methylphenidate classified?

    • Schedule I

    • Schedule II

    • Schedule III

    • Schedule IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule II
    Explanation
    Methylphenidate is classified as a Schedule II drug. Schedule II drugs are considered to have a high potential for abuse and dependence, but they also have recognized medical uses. These drugs are tightly regulated and require a prescription from a healthcare professional. Methylphenidate is commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. It is a stimulant medication that affects certain chemicals in the brain and nerves that contribute to hyperactivity and impulse control.

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  • 34. 

    Using Clarks Rule how much medication should a 40lb child receive if the adult dosage is 25mg?

    • 5.66mg

    • 6.66mg

    • 7.66mg

    • 8.66mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.66mg
    Explanation
    Clarks Rule is used to calculate the pediatric dosage based on the weight of the child. According to Clarks Rule, the pediatric dosage is calculated by dividing the weight of the child by 150 (adult weight) and then multiplying it by the adult dosage. In this case, the child weighs 40lbs, so the calculation would be (40/150) * 25mg = 6.66mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.66mg.

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  • 35. 

    What is the generic name Tenormin?

    • Atenolol

    • Metoprolol

    • Propranolol

    • Nadolol

    Correct Answer
    A. Atenolol
    Explanation
    Atenolol is the generic name for Tenormin. This means that Tenormin is the brand name for the medication Atenolol. Generic names are used to identify the active ingredient in a medication, while brand names are specific names given to a medication by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures it. In this case, Atenolol is the active ingredient in the medication Tenormin.

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  • 36. 

    What temperature is considered room temperature?

    • 8C

    • 8-15 C

    • 15-30 C

    • 30-40 C

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-30 C
    Explanation
    Room temperature is typically considered to be between 15-30 degrees Celsius. This range is generally comfortable for most people and is commonly used as a reference point for indoor climate control. Temperatures below this range can be too cold for comfort, while temperatures above this range can be too warm. Therefore, 15-30 degrees Celsius is the most appropriate answer for the question.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy?

    • Glyburide

    • Heparin

    • Pentoxifylline

    • Warfarin

    Correct Answer
    A. Warfarin
    Explanation
    Warfarin is a blood-thinning medication that works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, using warfarin in combination with vitamin K therapy would counteract the effects of warfarin and potentially increase the risk of clot formation. Hence, warfarin would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy.

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  • 38. 

    What disease may result in the formation of a goiter?

    • Cancer

    • Hypertension

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Hyperthyroidism

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperthyroidism
    Explanation
    Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which leads to excessive production of thyroid hormones. One of the common symptoms of hyperthyroidism is the enlargement of the thyroid gland, resulting in the formation of a goiter. Therefore, hyperthyroidism is the disease that may cause the formation of a goiter.

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  • 39. 

    How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?

    • Monthly

    • Twice per year

    • Yearly

    • Every 2 years

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 2 years
    Explanation
    A biennial inventory is taken every 2 years in a pharmacy. This means that the inventory is conducted once every two years to assess the stock and supplies in the pharmacy. This allows the pharmacy to keep track of their inventory, identify any discrepancies or shortages, and plan for restocking and ordering of medications and other products. By conducting a biennial inventory, the pharmacy ensures that they have accurate records of their inventory and can maintain proper stock levels for their customers.

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  • 40. 

    What type of pharmacy balance is required in all pharmacies?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Electronic

    • Triple Beam

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Class A pharmacy balances are required in all pharmacies because they are the most accurate and precise type of balance. These balances are designed to measure small quantities of medications with high precision, ensuring that the correct dosage is dispensed to patients. Class A balances are calibrated regularly and meet strict standards set by regulatory bodies to ensure the accuracy of medication measurements.

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  • 41. 

    What is the maximum number of refills allowed fro a prescription of oxycodone & APAP if authorized by the prescriber?

    • 0

    • 5

    • 12

    • Unlimited

    Correct Answer
    A. 0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0 because oxycodone & APAP (acetaminophen) is a controlled substance and refills are not allowed for controlled substances. The prescription must be filled and authorized by the prescriber each time it is needed.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following topical corticcosteroid dosage forms is more potient?

    • Cream

    • Gel

    • Lotion

    • Ointment

    Correct Answer
    A. Ointment
    Explanation
    Ointment is the most potent topical corticosteroid dosage form. Ointments have a higher concentration of medication compared to creams, gels, and lotions. They have a greasy consistency and are more occlusive, allowing for better penetration of the medication into the skin. Ointments are typically used for conditions that require a stronger treatment, such as severe eczema or psoriasis.

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  • 43. 

    What form must be submitted to the DEAto destroy controlled substances? 

    • Form 41

    • Form 49

    • Form 224

    • Form 225

    Correct Answer
    A. Form 41
    Explanation
    Form 41 must be submitted to the DEA to destroy controlled substances.

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  • 44. 

    At which part of the liquid does one look when measuring liquids?

    • A point between the bottom and top of the meniscus

    • Bottom of the meniscus

    • Top of the meniscus

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Bottom of the meniscus
    Explanation
    When measuring liquids, one should look at the bottom of the meniscus. The meniscus is the curved surface of a liquid in a container, and it is caused by the adhesive forces between the liquid and the container. Looking at the bottom of the meniscus helps to avoid parallax errors, which can occur when the liquid level is not observed from the correct angle. By looking at the bottom of the meniscus, one can obtain a more accurate measurement of the liquid volume.

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  • 45. 

    What is a drug monograph?

    • A picture of the drug from the manufacturer

    • A price list for the drug from manufacturer

    • Literature on the drug

    • Literature on the manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. Literature on the drug
    Explanation
    A drug monograph refers to literature on the drug. It provides comprehensive information about a specific medication, including its composition, indications, contraindications, side effects, dosage, and administration instructions. It serves as a resource for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about prescribing and administering the drug. The monograph may also include information on clinical studies, pharmacokinetics, and drug interactions. Overall, it is a detailed document that summarizes all essential information about a particular drug.

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  • 46. 

    How many milliliters are in 1 cubic centimeter?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    There are 1 milliliter in 1 cubic centimeter. This is because both milliliters and cubic centimeters are units of volume and are equivalent in terms of measurement. Therefore, 1 milliliter is equal to 1 cubic centimeter.

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  • 47. 

    What are the two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers?

    • Electronic and e-mail

    • Electronic and fax

    • Electronic and FedEx

    • Electronic and hard copy

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic and hard copy
    Explanation
    The two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers are electronic and hard copy. Electronic submission involves sending claims electronically through a computer system, which is faster and more efficient. Hard copy submission, on the other hand, involves printing out the claim and physically mailing it to the payer. This method may be used when electronic submission is not possible or preferred by the payer.

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  • 48. 

    How many tablets should be given to a patient with the following prescription?HCTZ 50mg one month suppply1 tab qod   ref x 6

    • 15 tablets

    • 30 tablets

    • 90 tablets

    • 180 tablets

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 tablets
    Explanation
    Based on the prescription, the patient is prescribed HCTZ 50mg for a one month supply, to be taken every other day (qod) for a total of 6 refills. Since the medication is to be taken every other day, the patient will only need half the number of tablets as the number of days in a month. Therefore, the correct answer is 15 tablets.

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  • 49. 

    Which DAW code is used when the physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription?

    • 0

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    When a physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription, it means that the patient should receive the specific brand of medication mentioned and not a generic alternative. In the context of the given options, the DAW (Dispense as Written) code 1 is used to indicate this requirement. This code instructs the pharmacist to dispense the brand-name medication exactly as prescribed by the physician.

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  • Current Version
  • Feb 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 01, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Vtracy1110
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