Practice Exam PTCB
Practice Exam for PTCB Certification
Questions and Answers
- 1.
How long must a laminar airflow hood be on before being used?
- A.
15 min
- B.
30 min
- C.
1 hr
- D.
2 hr
Correct Answer
B. 30 minExplanation
A laminar airflow hood must be on for at least 30 minutes before being used. This duration allows the hood to reach and maintain a stable and consistent airflow pattern, ensuring the removal of any contaminants or particles from the working area. It also allows the hood to achieve the required sterility and cleanliness levels necessary for carrying out sensitive procedures or experiments. A shorter duration may not provide sufficient time for the hood to establish the desired airflow conditions, while a longer duration may be unnecessary and result in energy wastage.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription?
- A.
At bedtime
- B.
Hours
- C.
House
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. At bedtimeExplanation
The abbreviation "hs" on a prescription stands for "at bedtime." This indicates that the medication should be taken before going to sleep. It is important to follow the instructions on the prescription to ensure proper timing and dosage of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following drugs is not a cephalosporin?
- A.
Keflex
- B.
Lorabid
- C.
Suprax
- D.
Vantin
Correct Answer
B. LorabidExplanation
Lorabid is not a cephalosporin drug. Cephalosporins are a class of antibiotics commonly used to treat bacterial infections. Keflex, Suprax, and Vantin are all examples of cephalosporin drugs. However, Lorabid belongs to a different class of antibiotics called macrolides. It is used to treat certain types of infections caused by bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following drugs is not an NSAID?
- A.
Colchicine
- B.
Celecoxib
- C.
Ibuprofen
- D.
Oxaprozin
Correct Answer
A. ColchicineExplanation
Colchicine is not an NSAID because it works by a different mechanism of action compared to NSAIDs. While NSAIDs reduce inflammation by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), colchicine works by inhibiting the movement of certain white blood cells to the inflamed area. Therefore, colchicine is not classified as an NSAID.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is true concerning nitrofurantoin?
- A.
It should be taken as a loading dose
- B.
It should be taken at breakfast only
- C.
It should be taken with alcohol
- D.
It should be taken with food
Correct Answer
D. It should be taken with foodExplanation
Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Taking it with food helps to increase its absorption and effectiveness. This is because food slows down the emptying of the stomach and allows for better absorption of the medication in the intestines. Therefore, it is recommended to take nitrofurantoin with food to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: " i gtt os bid"?
- A.
For external use only
- B.
For the ear
- C.
For the eye
- D.
Use rectally
Correct Answer
C. For the eyeExplanation
The signa "i gtt os bid" indicates that the medication should be administered in the eye. Therefore, the auxiliary label that should be included on the container is "For the eye".Rate this question:
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- 7.
Where would a buccal tablet be placed?
- A.
Betweeen the cheeks
- B.
Orally
- C.
Rectally
- D.
Under the tongue
Correct Answer
A. Betweeen the cheeksExplanation
A buccal tablet is designed to be placed between the cheeks and gums, where it dissolves and releases medication directly into the bloodstream. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption and avoids first-pass metabolism in the liver. Placing the tablet orally or rectally would not achieve the desired effect, and placing it under the tongue is known as sublingual administration, which is a different route of drug delivery.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription?
- A.
Doseage schedule
- B.
Drug name
- C.
Drug strength
- D.
Patient name
Correct Answer
A. Doseage scheduleExplanation
A dosage schedule refers to the specific instructions regarding when and how often a medication should be taken. This information is typically included in a hospital medication order to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage at the appropriate times. In a retail prescription, the dosage schedule is usually not provided as it is assumed that the patient will follow the standard instructions provided by the pharmacist or doctor. The other options listed (drug name, drug strength, and patient name) would typically be found on both a hospital medication order and a retail prescription.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy?
- A.
Glyburide
- B.
Heparin
- C.
Pentoxifylline
- D.
Warfarin
Correct Answer
D. WarfarinExplanation
Warfarin is a blood-thinning medication that works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, using warfarin in combination with vitamin K therapy would counteract the effects of warfarin and potentially increase the risk of clot formation. Hence, warfarin would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?
- A.
Disease
- B.
Hardening
- C.
Removal
- D.
Vomiting
Correct Answer
C. RemovalExplanation
The suffix "-ectomy" refers to the surgical removal of a specific body part or tissue. It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical procedure involving the removal of a particular organ or structure. For example, an appendectomy refers to the removal of the appendix, while a mastectomy refers to the removal of the breast tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is "Removal."Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug?
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
5
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
The maximum number of refills allowed for a schedule III drug is 5. This means that a prescription for a schedule III drug can be refilled up to 5 times before a new prescription is required. It is important to follow the guidelines and regulations set for schedule III drugs to ensure proper usage and prevent misuse or abuse.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A technician is given 120ml of a 50% (w/v) potassium chloride solution and is told to add 6 oz. of sterile water to it. What will be the final (w/v) percentage concentration of the solution?
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
33%
- D.
47%
Correct Answer
B. 20%Explanation
The technician is given 120ml of a 50% (w/v) potassium chloride solution. This means that there are 50 grams of potassium chloride in 100ml of solution. So, in 120ml of solution, there would be (50/100) * 120 = 60 grams of potassium chloride.
The technician is then told to add 6 oz. of sterile water to the solution. 1 oz. is approximately equal to 29.57 ml. So, 6 oz. would be equal to 6 * 29.57 = 177.42 ml of water.
The final volume of the solution would be 120ml + 177.42ml = 297.42ml.
To calculate the final (w/v) percentage concentration, we need to divide the weight of the solute (potassium chloride) by the volume of the solution and multiply by 100.
The final (w/v) percentage concentration would be (60g / 297.42ml) * 100 = 20%.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the purpose of post-marketing monitoring of new drugs?
- A.
Ensure GMP
- B.
Monitor the quality of new drugs
- C.
Removal of unsafe drugs
- D.
Test for purity and effectiveness of new drugs
Correct Answer
C. Removal of unsafe drugsExplanation
The purpose of post-marketing monitoring of new drugs is to identify and remove any drugs that are found to be unsafe. This process involves ongoing surveillance and evaluation of the safety profile of the drug after it has been approved and made available to the public. By monitoring the drug's safety, any adverse effects or risks can be identified and appropriate actions, such as recalls or warnings, can be taken to protect public health.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What disease may result in the formation of a goiter?
- A.
Cancer
- B.
Hypertension
- C.
Hypoglycemia
- D.
Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer
D. HyperthyroidismExplanation
Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which leads to excessive production of thyroid hormones. One of the common symptoms of hyperthyroidism is the enlargement of the thyroid gland, resulting in the formation of a goiter. Therefore, hyperthyroidism is the disease that may cause the formation of a goiter.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?
- A.
Extended insulin zinc
- B.
Isophane insulin
- C.
NPH insulin
- D.
Regular insulin
Correct Answer
D. Regular insulinExplanation
Regular insulin can be added to an IV solution because it is a short-acting insulin that can be rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. It is commonly used in emergency situations or in hospital settings where quick and precise control of blood sugar levels is required. Adding regular insulin to an IV solution allows for a more direct and immediate delivery of the medication into the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is a drug monograph?
- A.
A picture of the drug from the manufacturer
- B.
A price list for the drug from manufacturer
- C.
Literature on the drug
- D.
Literature on the manufacturer
Correct Answer
C. Literature on the drugExplanation
A drug monograph refers to literature on the drug. It provides comprehensive information about a specific medication, including its composition, indications, contraindications, side effects, dosage, and administration instructions. It serves as a resource for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about prescribing and administering the drug. The monograph may also include information on clinical studies, pharmacokinetics, and drug interactions. Overall, it is a detailed document that summarizes all essential information about a particular drug.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What may a pharmacy technician do as a result of OBRA 90?
- A.
Call a physician and recommend a diffrent drug doseage
- B.
Counsel a patient with regard to their drug therapy
- C.
Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law
- D.
Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications
Correct Answer
D. Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindicationsExplanation
As a result of OBRA 90, a pharmacy technician may screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications. OBRA 90, also known as the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, implemented regulations for Medicaid patients in long-term care facilities. One of the requirements is that pharmacists or pharmacy technicians must review patient profiles to identify any potential contraindications between prescribed drugs and the patient's medical conditions. This helps ensure patient safety and prevents any adverse drug reactions that may occur due to drug-disease interactions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How many milliliters are in 1 cubic centimeter?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
There are 1 milliliter in 1 cubic centimeter. This is because both milliliters and cubic centimeters are units of volume and are equivalent in terms of measurement. Therefore, 1 milliliter is equal to 1 cubic centimeter.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following drugs will produce an adverse effect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy?
- A.
Amoxicillin
- B.
Azithromycin
- C.
Metronidazole
- D.
Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer
C. MetronidazoleExplanation
Metronidazole is the correct answer because it is known to interact with alcohol and produce a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, and rapid heartbeat when alcohol is consumed while taking metronidazole. Amoxicillin, Azithromycin, and Nitrofurantoin do not have documented interactions with alcohol, so they would not produce adverse effects when consumed together.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn"
- A.
120ml
- B.
150ml
- C.
450ml
- D.
480ml
Correct Answer
B. 150mlExplanation
The prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc po q 4 h prn," which means the patient should take 5cc (5 milliliters) of guaifenesin with codeine by mouth every 4 hours as needed. To determine the total amount needed for a 5-day supply, we need to calculate the number of doses in 5 days. Assuming the patient takes the medication every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in a day (24 hours divided by 4). Therefore, in 5 days, there would be a total of 30 doses (6 doses per day multiplied by 5 days). Since each dose is 5cc, the total amount needed for a 5-day supply would be 150cc (30 doses multiplied by 5cc). Therefore, the correct answer is 150ml.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following topical corticcosteroid dosage forms is more potient?
- A.
Cream
- B.
Gel
- C.
Lotion
- D.
Ointment
Correct Answer
D. OintmentExplanation
Ointment is the most potent topical corticosteroid dosage form. Ointments have a higher concentration of medication compared to creams, gels, and lotions. They have a greasy consistency and are more occlusive, allowing for better penetration of the medication into the skin. Ointments are typically used for conditions that require a stronger treatment, such as severe eczema or psoriasis.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Twice per year
- C.
Yearly
- D.
Every 2 years
Correct Answer
D. Every 2 yearsExplanation
A biennial inventory is taken every 2 years in a pharmacy. This means that the inventory is conducted once every two years to assess the stock and supplies in the pharmacy. This allows the pharmacy to keep track of their inventory, identify any discrepancies or shortages, and plan for restocking and ordering of medications and other products. By conducting a biennial inventory, the pharmacy ensures that they have accurate records of their inventory and can maintain proper stock levels for their customers.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not used to treat depression?
- A.
Antipsychotics
- B.
MAO inhibitors
- C.
SSRI's
- D.
TCAs
Correct Answer
A. AntipsychoticsExplanation
Antipsychotics are not typically used to treat depression. While they may be prescribed in some cases to manage certain symptoms associated with depression, such as psychosis or severe agitation, they are not considered a first-line treatment for depression. Instead, antidepressant medications such as MAO inhibitors, SSRIs, and TCAs are commonly used to treat depression by targeting specific neurotransmitters in the brain.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What size container would you use in dispensing 240ml of a liquid medication?
- A.
2oz
- B.
4oz
- C.
6oz
- D.
8oz
Correct Answer
D. 8ozExplanation
To dispense 240ml of liquid medication, you would need to use an 8oz container. This is because 1oz is equivalent to 30ml, so 8oz would be able to hold 240ml of the liquid medication.Rate this question:
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- 25.
You have received a medication order fro Lasix 40mg bid for 10 days. You prepare a unit dose of Lasix suspension (10mg/ml). How much would you dispense for a unit dose?
- A.
4ml
- B.
80ml
- C.
10ml
- D.
18ml
Correct Answer
B. 80mlExplanation
The medication order is for Lasix 40mg twice a day for 10 days. The unit dose of Lasix suspension is 10mg/ml. To calculate the amount to be dispensed for a unit dose, we need to find the total amount of medication needed for 10 days. The total amount of medication needed per day is 40mg (dose) x 2 (frequency) = 80mg/day. For 10 days, the total amount needed is 80mg/day x 10 days = 800mg. Since the concentration of the suspension is 10mg/ml, we divide the total amount needed by the concentration to find the volume: 800mg / 10mg/ml = 80ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 4ml, as it is the closest option to the calculated volume of 80ml.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The pharmacy technician receives a prescription fro Flexeril 10mg and the instructions read "i po tid". What is the total daily dose?
- A.
10mg
- B.
20mg
- C.
30mg
- D.
40mg
Correct Answer
C. 30mgExplanation
The prescription "i po tid" is an abbreviation for "1 by mouth three times a day". Since the prescription is for Flexeril 10mg, and the patient is instructed to take it three times a day, the total daily dose would be 10mg x 3 = 30mg.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the generic for Patanol?
- A.
Brimonidine
- B.
Ciprofloxacin
- C.
Latanoprost
- D.
Olopatadine
Correct Answer
D. OlopatadineExplanation
Olopatadine is the generic for Patanol. Patanol is a brand name medication used to treat allergic conjunctivitis. Olopatadine is an antihistamine that works by blocking the release of histamine, which helps to relieve symptoms such as itching, redness, and watering of the eyes. Therefore, Olopatadine is the correct answer as it is the generic name for Patanol.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which schedule of medications has no medical use in the United States and possess an extremely high potential for abuse?
- A.
Schedule I
- B.
Schedule II
- C.
Schedule III
- D.
Schedule IV
Correct Answer
A. Schedule IExplanation
Schedule I medications have no accepted medical use in the United States and have a high potential for abuse. They are considered to be the most dangerous drugs and are tightly regulated. These drugs are often classified as illegal substances and include drugs such as heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Due to their high potential for abuse and lack of medical use, they are not prescribed by healthcare professionals in the United States.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not an disadvantage of an oral dosage form?
- A.
Delayed onset of action
- B.
Ease of administration
- C.
First pass metabolism
- D.
Taste of medication
Correct Answer
B. Ease of administrationExplanation
The question asks for a disadvantage of an oral dosage form that is not listed among the options. The correct answer, "Ease of administration," is not a disadvantage but rather an advantage of oral dosage forms. Oral medications are easy to administer compared to other routes such as injections or inhalation.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What hospital committe is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary?
- A.
Infection Control Committee
- B.
Nursing and Pharmacy Committee
- C.
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
- D.
Product Evaluation Committee
Correct Answer
C. pHarmacy and Therapeutics CommitteeExplanation
The Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary in a hospital. This committee is composed of healthcare professionals, including pharmacists and physicians, who review and evaluate medications for safety, efficacy, and cost-effectiveness. They make decisions about which drugs should be included on the formulary, which drugs should be restricted, and which drugs should be removed. The committee also ensures that the formulary is regularly updated to reflect new medications and treatment guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A 10 year-old child weighs 90 lb. How much medication should the child receive using Young's formula if the adult dose is 30mg?
- A.
13mg
- B.
18mg
- C.
50mg
- D.
66mg
Correct Answer
A. 13mgExplanation
Young's formula is used to calculate the pediatric dose of medication based on the adult dose and the child's weight. The formula is: (Child's weight in lb / 150 lb) x Adult dose. In this case, the child weighs 90 lb and the adult dose is 30mg. Using Young's formula, we can calculate the pediatric dose as (90 lb / 150 lb) x 30mg = 18mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 18mg, not 13mg.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What are the two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers?
- A.
Electronic and e-mail
- B.
Electronic and fax
- C.
Electronic and FedEx
- D.
Electronic and hard copy
Correct Answer
D. Electronic and hard copyExplanation
The two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third party payers are electronic and hard copy. Electronic submission involves sending claims electronically through a computer system, which is faster and more efficient. Hard copy submission, on the other hand, involves printing out the claim and physically mailing it to the payer. This method may be used when electronic submission is not possible or preferred by the payer.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many tablets should be given to a patient with the following prescription?HCTZ 50mg one month suppply1 tab qod ref x 6
- A.
15 tablets
- B.
30 tablets
- C.
90 tablets
- D.
180 tablets
Correct Answer
A. 15 tabletsExplanation
Based on the prescription, the patient is prescribed HCTZ 50mg for a one month supply, to be taken every other day (qod) for a total of 6 refills. Since the medication is to be taken every other day, the patient will only need half the number of tablets as the number of days in a month. Therefore, the correct answer is 15 tablets.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If the patient is to receive 2.4g of medication/day and the drug is available in 600mg tablets, how many tablets are needed for a day's dose?
- A.
0.5
- B.
1
- C.
4
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
To calculate the number of tablets needed for a day's dose, we divide the total medication required (2.4g) by the dosage of each tablet (600mg). This gives us 4 tablets, as 2.4g is equal to 2400mg. Therefore, 4 tablets are needed for a day's dose.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is true about generically equivalent drugs?
- A.
Chemically diffrent, but are expected to produce same therapeutic outcome and toxicity
- B.
Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration
- C.
Contain different active ingredients
- D.
Priced exactly the same as brand name drugs
Correct Answer
B. Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administrationExplanation
Generically equivalent drugs are chemically identical in terms of their strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration. This means that although they may have different brand names, they contain the same active ingredients and are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity as the brand name drugs. The term "generically equivalent" implies that these drugs are interchangeable and can be substituted for each other without any significant differences in efficacy or safety.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many 30mg KMNO4 (potassium permanganate) tablets are needed to prepare the following solution? KMNO4 1:5000 600ml
- A.
2 tablets
- B.
3 tablets
- C.
4 tablets
- D.
6 tablets
Correct Answer
C. 4 tablets -
- 37.
A child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a 10mg/kg dose of amoxicillin tid. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/ml. How much medication (in ml) would the patient receive in each day?
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
13
- D.
18
Correct Answer
D. 18Explanation
The child weighs 30kg and is prescribed a dose of 10mg/kg of amoxicillin. Therefore, the total dose for the child would be 30kg x 10mg/kg = 300mg. The pharmacy stocks 50mg/ml of amoxicillin. To calculate the amount of medication the patient would receive, we divide the total dose by the concentration of the medication: 300mg / 50mg/ml = 6ml. Since the child is prescribed the medication three times a day (tid), the total amount of medication the patient would receive in each day is 6ml x 3 = 18ml.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What does "NPO" mean on a prescription?
- A.
Do not refill
- B.
Do not place in mouth
- C.
Do not repeat
- D.
Nothing by mouth
Correct Answer
D. Nothing by mouthExplanation
The term "NPO" on a prescription stands for "Nothing by mouth." This means that the patient should not consume any food or drink orally. This instruction is often given before medical procedures or surgeries that require an empty stomach to prevent complications. It ensures that the patient's digestive system is clear and reduces the risk of aspiration or vomiting during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the generic name for Zyprexa?
- A.
Donepezil
- B.
Metaxalone
- C.
Olanzapine
- D.
Risperidone
Correct Answer
C. OlanzapineExplanation
The generic name for Zyprexa is Olanzapine.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 10mg MS IM q 4 h prn pain?
- A.
Inhale 10mg of morphine sulfate every 4 hours as needed for pain
- B.
Insert 10ml of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain
- C.
Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed for pain
- D.
Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain
Correct Answer
D. Inject 10mg of morpHine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for painExplanation
The correct interpretation of the given signa is to inject 10mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. The abbreviation "IM" stands for intramuscular, indicating the route of administration. The abbreviation "q" stands for every, and "h" stands for hours. "prn" stands for as needed, indicating that the medication should be administered only when the patient experiences pain.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn"?
- A.
As directed
- B.
As needed
- C.
By mouth
- D.
By rectum
Correct Answer
B. As neededExplanation
The abbreviation "prn" stands for "pro re nata" which means "as needed" in Latin. Therefore, if the directions read "prn," the patient would take the medication as needed, based on their symptoms or specific circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How many milliliters of water should be added to1 L of 70% isopropyl alcohol to prepare a 30% solution?
- A.
2.33ml
- B.
42.86ml
- C.
1333ml
- D.
2.33L
Correct Answer
C. 1333mlExplanation
To prepare a 30% solution of isopropyl alcohol, water needs to be added to dilute the 70% isopropyl alcohol. The volume of the final solution is 1L. The difference between the desired concentration (30%) and the initial concentration (70%) is 40%. To find the volume of water needed, we can set up a proportion: 70%/30% = 1L/x. Solving for x gives us x = 1L * 30%/70% = 0.4286L. Since the question asks for the volume in milliliters, we multiply 0.4286L by 1000 to get 428.6ml, which rounds to 429ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 1333ml.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How many days would a prescription of 30 tablets last if the directions were " 1 tab tid ac"?
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
8
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
If the directions on the prescription are "1 tab tid ac", it means that the patient should take 1 tablet three times a day with meals. Therefore, in a day, the patient would take a total of 3 tablets. Since there are 30 tablets in the prescription, dividing 30 by 3 gives us 10. Therefore, the prescription of 30 tablets would last for 10 days.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How many grams of a 10% and 1% ointment should be usgm ed to make 45gm of a 2% ointment?
- A.
5gm of the 1%; and 40gm of the 2%
- B.
5gm of the 1%; and 40gm of the 10%
- C.
5gm of the 10%; and 40gm of the 2%
- D.
5gm of the 10%; and 40gm of the 1%
Correct Answer
D. 5gm of the 10%; and 40gm of the 1%Explanation
To make a 2% ointment, a higher concentration of the active ingredient is required. Therefore, more of the 10% ointment should be used compared to the 1% ointment. Since the question asks for a total of 45 grams of ointment, 5 grams of the 10% ointment and 40 grams of the 1% ointment should be used. This combination will result in a 2% ointment.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following drugs would use a "pulse dosing"?
- A.
Clotrimazole
- B.
Fluconazole
- C.
Itraconazole
- D.
Ketoconazole
Correct Answer
C. ItraconazoleExplanation
Itraconazole is the correct answer because it is a drug that can be administered using "pulse dosing". Pulse dosing refers to a treatment regimen where the drug is given in intermittent, high-dose pulses followed by a period of rest. This allows for higher drug concentrations in the body during the pulses, increasing its effectiveness while minimizing potential side effects. Clotrimazole, Fluconazole, and Ketoconazole are not typically administered using pulse dosing.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following interpretations of the signa "1 cap qid ac and hs" is correct?
- A.
Take 1 caplet by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
- B.
Take 1 capsule by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime
- C.
Take 1 capsule by mouth after meals and before bedtime
- D.
Take 1 capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime
Correct Answer
D. Take 1 capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime -
- 47.
Which DAW code is used when the physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription?
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
Correct Answer
B. 1Explanation
When a physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription, it means that the patient should receive the specific brand of medication mentioned and not a generic alternative. In the context of the given options, the DAW (Dispense as Written) code 1 is used to indicate this requirement. This code instructs the pharmacist to dispense the brand-name medication exactly as prescribed by the physician.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What term refers to a pharmacy receiving a predetermined amount of money for a patient regardless of the number of prescriptions filled or the value of the prescriptions each month?
- A.
Capitation
- B.
Co-payment
- C.
Deductable
- D.
Fee for service
Correct Answer
A. CapitationExplanation
Capitation refers to a payment model in which a pharmacy receives a fixed amount of money for each patient, regardless of the number or value of prescriptions filled each month. This payment is not dependent on the actual services provided or the cost of medications. Capitation is often used in managed care plans, where the pharmacy is responsible for providing all necessary medications and services for a set fee per patient. This model incentivizes pharmacies to provide cost-effective care and encourages efficiency in healthcare delivery.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the meaning of the term "non rep"?
- A.
Do not repeat
- B.
No known allergies
- C.
Nothing by mouth
- D.
Refill
Correct Answer
A. Do not repeatExplanation
The term "non rep" is an abbreviation for "do not repeat." In a medical context, it is often used to indicate that a certain medication or treatment should not be repeated or administered again. This could be due to various reasons such as potential adverse effects, completion of the prescribed course, or a change in the patient's condition. It serves as a reminder for healthcare professionals to avoid repeating a specific intervention or medication.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Cephalexin is to cephalosporin as ciprofloxacin is to ______________?
- A.
Macrolide
- B.
Penicillin
- C.
Quinolone
- D.
Tetracycline
Correct Answer
C. QuinoloneExplanation
Cephalexin and ciprofloxacin are both antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections. Cephalexin belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics, while ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone class. Therefore, the correct answer is quinolone.Rate this question:
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Feb 12, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Sep 01, 2010Quiz Created by
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