1.
The Angular Gyrus is assocaited with what in the brain. comcering language?
Correct Answer
A. Reading aloud
Explanation
The Angular Gyrus is a region in the brain that is associated with language processing, specifically reading aloud. It plays a crucial role in converting written words into spoken language. This region helps in recognizing and understanding written words, and then coordinating the movements required for articulating those words. Therefore, the Angular Gyrus is responsible for the ability to read aloud and convert written language into spoken language.
2.
What does Broca's area control?
Correct Answer
C. Language expression
Explanation
Broca's area, a region in the frontal lobe of the brain, is responsible for controlling language expression. It plays a crucial role in the production of speech and the ability to articulate words and sentences. Damage to Broca's area can result in a condition known as Broca's aphasia, where individuals struggle with speaking fluently but can still comprehend language. Therefore, the correct answer is language expression.
3.
What does Wernicke's Area control?
Correct Answer
D. Language comprehension and retention
Explanation
Wernicke's Area is a region in the brain that is responsible for language comprehension and retention. It plays a crucial role in understanding and retaining spoken and written language. Damage to this area can result in difficulties in understanding and producing coherent speech, a condition known as Wernicke's aphasia. Therefore, Wernicke's Area primarily controls language comprehension and retention.
4.
The general intelligence (g) is a factor that underlies specific mental abilities and is measured by every task on an intelligence test.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because general intelligence (g) is a concept in psychology that suggests that there is a single underlying factor that influences all cognitive abilities. This factor, often referred to as "g," is believed to be responsible for an individual's overall intellectual functioning and is measured by various tasks on an intelligence test. In other words, the performance on different specific mental abilities tasks is influenced by the general intelligence factor.
5.
What condition does a person have if they are otherwise limited in mental ability but they have an exception specific skill?
Correct Answer
Savant Syndrome
Explanation
Savant Syndrome is a condition where a person has limited mental abilities but possesses an exceptional specific skill. This rare condition is often associated with individuals who have developmental disabilities such as autism spectrum disorder. Despite their overall cognitive limitations, individuals with Savant Syndrome demonstrate extraordinary abilities in areas like memory, calculation, music, art, or spatial skills. This condition showcases the incredible diversity and complexity of the human brain, highlighting that exceptional talents can exist alongside cognitive impairments.
6.
Which is not an "intelligence" in Sternberg's Three Intelligences?
Correct Answer
C. Statistical
Explanation
In Sternberg's Three Intelligences, analytical, creative, and practical intelligences are considered as forms of intelligence. However, statistical intelligence is not included as one of the intelligences in Sternberg's theory. This suggests that statistical intelligence is not recognized as a distinct form of intelligence according to Sternberg's framework.
7.
In sterburgs three intelligences, which itelligence: solves well-defined problems with a single right answer?
Correct Answer
A. Analytical
Explanation
Analytical intelligence is the correct answer because it refers to the ability to solve well-defined problems with a single right answer. This type of intelligence involves logical thinking, reasoning, and the ability to break down complex problems into smaller, more manageable parts. Analytical intelligence is commonly associated with tasks that require critical thinking and problem-solving skills, such as mathematics or scientific analysis.
8.
In Sterburg's 3 intelligence's, which one: is reacting adaptively in novel situations?
Correct Answer
B. Creative
Explanation
The correct answer is creative because creativity involves thinking outside the box and coming up with innovative solutions. In novel situations, individuals with creative intelligence are able to adapt and think creatively to find unique and effective solutions. Analytical intelligence focuses on logical reasoning and problem-solving, while practical intelligence involves applying knowledge and skills to real-life situations. However, it is creative intelligence that specifically pertains to reacting adaptively in novel situations.
9.
Which "itelligence" in Sternburgs three intelligences solves ill-defined taks with multiple solutions?
Correct Answer
C. Practical
Explanation
The practical intelligence in Sternburg's three intelligences solves ill-defined tasks with multiple solutions. Practical intelligence is the ability to apply knowledge and skills to real-life situations and adapt to new and changing circumstances. When faced with ill-defined tasks that have multiple solutions, practical intelligence allows individuals to assess the situation, consider various options, and choose the most appropriate course of action. This type of intelligence involves problem-solving, decision-making, and the ability to think practically and pragmatically.
10.
Which component is not 1 of the 5 components in creativity?
Correct Answer
F. Successful analytical thinking
Explanation
Successful analytical thinking is not one of the five components of creativity because creativity is generally associated with divergent thinking, which involves generating multiple ideas and possibilities. Analytical thinking, on the other hand, is more focused on convergent thinking, which involves logical and critical analysis to find the best solution or answer. While analytical thinking is valuable in problem-solving and decision-making, it is not directly related to the generation of new and original ideas, which is the essence of creativity.
11.
Which of the following: is a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarentees soliving a particular problem?
Correct Answer
B. Algorithm
Explanation
An algorithm is a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. It is a step-by-step process that provides a clear and systematic approach to finding a solution. Algorithms are often used in computer science and mathematics to solve complex problems efficiently and accurately. Unlike insights or heuristics, algorithms are based on precise instructions and can be followed without ambiguity to achieve the desired outcome.
12.
Which of these is not a way to solve a problem?
Correct Answer
A. Fixation
Explanation
Fixation is not a way to solve a problem. Fixation refers to getting stuck on a particular approach or perspective and being unable to think outside of it. It hinders problem-solving by limiting creativity and flexibility. On the other hand, algorithms, insight, and heuristics are all valid problem-solving methods. Algorithms are step-by-step procedures for solving problems, insight involves sudden realization or understanding, and heuristics are general problem-solving strategies or rules of thumb.
13.
Which of the following is a simple thinking strategy that allows us to make judgements and solve problems efficiently; faster, but more error prone?
Correct Answer
B. Heuristic
Explanation
A heuristic is a simple thinking strategy that allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently. It is faster than using an algorithm, but it is also more error-prone. Heuristics are mental shortcuts that help us simplify complex tasks and make decisions quickly, based on our past experiences and intuition. While heuristics can be effective in many situations, they can also lead to biases and errors in judgment.
14.
Which of the following best describes a concept?
Correct Answer
B. A mental grouping of simialr objects,events,ideas, or people.
Explanation
The correct answer is "a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people." This option best describes a concept because it refers to the process of mentally categorizing or grouping similar things together based on their shared characteristics or properties. Concepts help us organize and understand the world around us by allowing us to create mental representations that simplify complex information and facilitate our cognitive processes.
15.
A ____ is a mental image of the best example of a category.
Correct Answer
prototype
Explanation
A prototype is a mental image of the best example of a category. It represents the ideal or most typical representation of a concept or category. It serves as a cognitive reference point that helps individuals understand and categorize new information or objects based on their similarity to the prototype.
16.
Which of the following is not one of the two subtopics of fixation?
Correct Answer
C. Prototype
Explanation
The question is asking for a subtopic of fixation that is not included in the given options. Fixation refers to the cognitive bias that prevents individuals from seeing problems from new perspectives. Among the given options, "prototype" is not a subtopic of fixation. Prototype refers to a mental representation or ideal example of a category. While mental set and functional fixedness are both subtopics of fixation as they involve rigid thinking and inability to see alternative solutions.
17.
When solving a problem, you most likely are exhibiting what if you: have the tendency to search for info that supports your preconceptions and ignore contradictory evidence?
Correct Answer
B. Conformation bias
Explanation
Conformation bias refers to the tendency to search for information that confirms one's existing beliefs or preconceptions while ignoring contradictory evidence. This bias can prevent individuals from considering alternative perspectives or objectively evaluating information. In the given scenario, the individual is exhibiting confirmation bias by actively seeking out information that supports their preconceptions and disregarding any contradictory evidence. This bias can hinder problem-solving abilities as it limits the individual's ability to consider different viewpoints or explore alternative solutions.
18.
If one has the tendency to approach a problem in one particular way (i.e a notecards everytime they study for an exam), they most likely have a what?
Correct Answer
A. Mental set
Explanation
If someone has the tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, it suggests that they have a mental set. A mental set refers to a fixed way of thinking or problem-solving that is based on previous experiences or habits. It means that the person is inclined to use a specific method or strategy, such as using notecards while studying for an exam, and may have difficulty considering alternative approaches.
19.
If one has the tendency to only think of things in only the terms of their usual functions (i.e someone may see a pen only for writing, when it can be used to put hair into a bun, or reset a button) then they are showing what idea of fixation?
Correct Answer
B. Functional fixedness
Explanation
Functional fixedness refers to the tendency to only see objects or concepts in terms of their usual or intended functions, limiting the ability to think creatively or solve problems. In this case, the person who only sees a pen as a writing tool and fails to consider alternative uses like putting hair into a bun or resetting a button is demonstrating functional fixedness. They are fixated on the pen's usual function and are unable to think outside the box or consider alternative uses.
20.
Which of the following states what an Achievement Test tests?
Correct Answer
A. What a person has learned
Explanation
An achievement test is designed to assess the knowledge and skills that a person has acquired in a specific area or subject. It measures what a person has learned by evaluating their understanding, retention, and application of the material. This type of test is commonly used in educational settings to determine a student's level of proficiency and to gauge their progress and academic achievement. Therefore, the correct answer is "what a person has learned."
21.
The difference between an Achievement test and an Aptitude test is that an aptitude test predicts a persons future performance, and an achievement is designed to test what a person has learned?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that an aptitude test is designed to assess a person's potential or ability to learn new skills or perform tasks in the future, while an achievement test measures what a person has already learned or achieved. Therefore, the statement correctly states that an aptitude test predicts future performance, while an achievement test assesses past learning.
22.
Which of the following is not one of the two of the suptopics for Validity?
Correct Answer
B. Reliability validity
Explanation
The correct answer is reliability validity because reliability is not a subtopic of validity. Reliability refers to the consistency and stability of a measurement, while validity refers to the accuracy and appropriateness of a measurement.
23.
Which subtopic of validity is: the extent to which a test predicts the behavior its designed to predict that uses correlation?
Correct Answer
A. Predictablity validity
Explanation
The subtopic of validity that is being described in the question is predictability validity. This type of validity assesses the extent to which a test is able to accurately predict the behavior or outcomes that it is designed to measure. It is measured using correlation, which indicates the strength and direction of the relationship between the test scores and the predicted behavior. A high correlation suggests a strong predictability validity, indicating that the test is effective in predicting the intended behavior.
24.
Which two are two examples of early Intelligence Testing?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Standford-Binet
C. Intelligence- Quotient
Explanation
The two examples of early Intelligence Testing are the Standford-Binet test and the Intelligence Quotient (IQ) test. The Standford-Binet test was developed in the early 20th century by Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon, and it aimed to measure a person's intelligence through a series of tasks and questions. The Intelligence Quotient (IQ) test, on the other hand, was developed by Lewis Terman in 1916 and it assigns a numerical score to a person's intelligence based on their performance on the test. Both tests were pioneering efforts in the field of intelligence testing and have been widely used since their development.
25.
________ is the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to.
Correct Answer(s)
Validity
Explanation
Validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure. It assesses whether the test is measuring the specific construct or concept it claims to measure. In other words, it determines whether the test is valid in measuring the targeted variable or outcome. A test with high validity is reliable and provides accurate and meaningful results, while a test with low validity may produce inconsistent or irrelevant results. Therefore, validity is crucial in ensuring the usefulness and effectiveness of a test.
26.
What is Skinner's understanding of cognition?
Correct Answer
B. More learning occurs than associating response with consequences
Explanation
Skinner's understanding of cognition is that more learning occurs than associating response with consequences. This means that according to Skinner, the process of learning is more important and prevalent than the association of a response with its consequences. In other words, Skinner believed that the focus should be on the acquisition of new knowledge and skills through learning, rather than solely on the reinforcement or punishment of specific behaviors.
27.
The cognitive map is mental representation of the persons capability to understand ideas and topics
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
A cognitive map is a mental representation of the layout of one's enviornment.
28.
Which of these are not one of the two examples of motivation in Skinner's understanding of cognition?
Correct Answer
C. Optomistic
Explanation
In Skinner's understanding of cognition, motivation is categorized into two examples: extrinsic and intrinsic. Extrinsic motivation refers to external factors that drive behavior, such as rewards or punishments. Intrinsic motivation, on the other hand, stems from internal factors like personal interests or enjoyment. The term "optimistic" does not fit into either of these categories and is not one of the examples of motivation in Skinner's understanding of cognition.
29.
The desire to perform a behavior effectively for it's own sake is Extrinsic motivation.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Intrinsic motivation is for its own sake, and extrinsic motivation is the desire to perform a behavior to receive rewards or avoid punishment.
30.
Which type of motivation, in Skinners understaning of cognition, is a component or trait of creativity?
Correct Answer
B. Intrinsic
Explanation
In Skinner's understanding of cognition, intrinsic motivation is considered a component or trait of creativity. This means that individuals who are intrinsically motivated are more likely to exhibit creative thinking and behavior. Intrinsic motivation refers to being driven by internal factors such as personal interest, enjoyment, and satisfaction, rather than external rewards or pressures. It is this internal drive that fuels creativity and allows individuals to generate innovative ideas and solutions.
31.
In what order do the Information- Processing Models go?
Correct Answer
D. Encoding, storage, retrieval
Explanation
The Information-Processing Models go in the order of encoding, storage, and retrieval. Encoding refers to the process of converting information into a format that can be stored and processed by the brain. Storage involves the retention of encoded information over time. Finally, retrieval is the process of accessing and recalling stored information when needed. This sequence represents the flow of information from initial input to long-term memory and subsequent recall.
32.
Encoding information is the ____________of information into memory, and storage is the __________ of __________ information.
Correct Answer
A. Processing, retention, encoded
Explanation
The correct answer is "processing, retention, encoded". In this context, encoding refers to the process of converting information into a format that can be stored in memory. Processing involves manipulating and organizing the encoded information. Retention refers to the storage of the processed information in memory for future use.
33.
In connectionism, what are the three types of memory ( the three stages)?
Correct Answer
B. Sensory, short term, long term
Explanation
The correct answer is sensory, short term, long term. In connectionism, memory is divided into three stages. Sensory memory is the initial stage where information from the environment is briefly stored. Short-term memory is the second stage, where information is actively processed and held temporarily. Long-term memory is the final stage, where information is stored for a longer duration and can be retrieved later. Permanent memory is not a recognized stage in connectionism.
34.
What are three strategies in effortful processing ( the unconscious encoding of well learned information and incidental information)?
Correct Answer
B. Rehersal, spacing effect, serial position effect
Explanation
The correct answer is rehearsal, spacing effect, and serial position effect. These three strategies are all part of effortful processing, which involves consciously and actively encoding information. Rehearsal refers to the process of repeating information over and over again to aid in its encoding. The spacing effect suggests that spacing out study sessions over time leads to better retention of information. Serial position effect refers to the tendency to remember information at the beginning and end of a list more easily than information in the middle.
35.
What are the 3 levels of encoding?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Visual encoding- encoding of pictorial images
B. Semantic encoding- encoding of meaning
D. Acoustic encoding- encoding of sound
Explanation
The question asks for the three levels of encoding. The given answer provides the correct information by stating that visual encoding is the encoding of pictorial images, semantic encoding is the encoding of meaning, and acoustic encoding is the encoding of sound. This explanation accurately summarizes the information provided in the answer choices.
36.
Mnemonics are memory aids. They use vivid imagery and organizational devices.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Mnemonics are indeed memory aids that help individuals remember information more easily. They utilize vivid imagery and organizational devices such as acronyms or rhymes to assist in retaining and recalling information. By associating new information with familiar or memorable cues, mnemonics can enhance memory and learning processes. Therefore, the statement "Mnemonics are memory aids. They use vivid imagery and organizational devices." is true.
37.
The two subtopics of visual enocding, that help in encoding pictoral images, include:
Correct Answer(s)
A. Imagery
C. Mnemonics
Explanation
The correct answer is imagery and mnemonics. Imagery refers to the mental representation of visual information, and it helps in encoding pictorial images by creating vivid mental images. Mnemonics, on the other hand, are memory aids or techniques that help in encoding and retrieving information. Both imagery and mnemonics play a role in visual encoding by enhancing the encoding process and making it easier to remember and recall visual information.
38.
The subtopic in language, that helps us communicate meaning, that has the smallest unit that carries meaning is:
Correct Answer
A. MorpHemes
Explanation
Morphemes are the smallest units of language that carry meaning. They can be individual words or parts of words, such as prefixes or suffixes. Phonemes, on the other hand, are the smallest units of sound in a language and do not necessarily carry meaning on their own. Mnemonics, although related to language, are memory aids or techniques used to help remember information and are not directly related to the smallest units of meaning in language. Therefore, the correct answer is morphemes.
39.
A phoneme is the smallest unit that carries meaning.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Phoneme- the smallest distinctive SOUND unit.
40.
Which interval scedule has it to where a specific amount of time must elapse before response elicits performance? ( ex. paycheck every 2 weeks)
Correct Answer
B. Fixed- interval
Explanation
The fixed-interval schedule is the correct answer because it involves a specific amount of time that must elapse before a response elicits performance. In this schedule, the reinforcement or reward is delivered after a fixed period of time, regardless of the number of responses made. For example, receiving a paycheck every two weeks is a fixed-interval schedule because the time interval (two weeks) is predetermined and the response (working) must occur for the reinforcement (paycheck) to be received.
41.
Which interval schedule has it to where changing amounts of time must elapse before response elicits reinforcements? ( ex. extra credit)
Correct Answer
B. Variable- ratio
Explanation
The correct answer is variable-ratio. In a variable-ratio schedule, reinforcements are delivered after an average number of responses, but the exact number of responses required for reinforcement varies. This means that changing amounts of time must elapse before a response elicits reinforcement. This schedule is often used to maintain high response rates and is commonly seen in gambling or slot machines, where players are reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses.
42.
Which interval schedule has an unpredictable # of responses required for reinforcers are obtained? ( ex. slot machines, raffles)
Correct Answer
A. Variable- ratio
Explanation
The variable-ratio schedule is the correct answer because it involves providing reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses. This means that the individual does not know exactly how many responses are required before they will receive a reinforcer. This type of schedule is often used in situations where the behavior being reinforced is difficult to predict or control, such as in gambling (slot machines) or winning raffles.
43.
Which interval schedule has a specific # of responses required before reinforcement is obtained? ( ex. free drink every 10th purchase, buy one get one 1/2 off)
Correct Answer
B. Fixed- ratio
Explanation
Fixed-ratio schedule is the correct answer because it requires a specific number of responses before reinforcement is obtained. In this schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed number of desired behaviors or responses have occurred. For example, a free drink every 10th purchase or a reward after completing a certain number of tasks. This schedule tends to result in high response rates and a consistent level of performance.
44.
A ___________ reinforcer is a stimulus that gains reinforcing power through association with a _________ reinforcer.
Correct Answer
B. Conditioned, primary
Explanation
A conditioned reinforcer is a stimulus that gains reinforcing power through association with a primary reinforcer. This means that the conditioned reinforcer initially has no reinforcing value but becomes reinforcing when it is paired with a primary reinforcer. For example, if a dog is consistently given a treat (primary reinforcer) every time it hears a bell (conditioned reinforcer), eventually the sound of the bell alone will become reinforcing to the dog. Therefore, the conditioned reinforcer relies on the association with the primary reinforcer to gain its reinforcing power.
45.
Which of the following is not an example of a reinforcer?
Correct Answer
D. Secondary
Explanation
A secondary reinforcer is a stimulus that becomes reinforcing after being associated with a primary reinforcer. It does not have inherent value or biological significance, but gains its reinforcing properties through learned associations. In contrast, positive reinforcement involves adding a desirable stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior, negative reinforcement involves removing an aversive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior, primary reinforcers are inherently rewarding (e.g. food, water), and conditioned reinforcers are stimuli that acquire reinforcing properties through classical conditioning. Therefore, secondary is not an example of a reinforcer as it refers to a type of reinforcer rather than a specific example.
46.
The Law of Effect was a theory by Skinner.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The Law of Effect was by THORDIKE.
47.
________________ conditioning forms an association between stimuli ( and involves respondent behavior), and _____________ conditioning associates own actions with consequences.
Correct Answer
B. Classical, operant
Explanation
Classical conditioning forms an association between stimuli and involves respondent behavior, while operant conditioning associates one's own actions with consequences. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response. In operant conditioning, behaviors are reinforced or punished to increase or decrease the likelihood of their recurrence.
48.
What type of learning is in which behavior is strengthened if follwed by a reinforcer, or diminished if followed by a punisher?
Correct Answer
D. Operant conditoning
Explanation
Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher. This type of conditioning involves the association between a behavior and its consequences. When a behavior is followed by a positive consequence (reinforcer), it is more likely to be repeated in the future. On the other hand, if a behavior is followed by a negative consequence (punisher), it is less likely to be repeated. This type of learning is different from classical conditioning, which involves the association between stimuli and responses.
49.
Which of the following is not a component of classical condtioning?
Correct Answer
C. Unconditioned reinforcers
Explanation
Classical conditioning involves the pairing of a conditioned stimulus (CS) with an unconditioned stimulus (US) to elicit a conditioned response (CR). The unconditioned response (UR) is an automatic response that occurs naturally in response to the unconditioned stimulus. Unconditioned reinforcers, on the other hand, are not a component of classical conditioning. Reinforcers are used in operant conditioning to strengthen or increase the likelihood of a behavior occurring, but they do not play a role in the process of classical conditioning.
50.
Which Law or Principle states that: behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely.
Correct Answer
C. Thorndikes Law of Effect
Explanation
Thorndike's Law of Effect states that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, while behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely. This principle suggests that individuals are more likely to repeat behaviors that lead to positive outcomes and avoid behaviors that lead to negative outcomes. This law is a fundamental concept in the field of psychology and has been influential in understanding how behaviors are learned and shaped.