1.
Determination of __________________________ is considered to be one of the most difficult documentation issues facing the long-term care environment including the LTCH.
Correct Answer
A. Principal diagnosis or reason for admission
Explanation
The determination of the principal diagnosis or reason for admission is considered to be one of the most difficult documentation issues facing the long-term care environment including the LTCH. This is because the principal diagnosis is the primary condition or symptom that led to the patient's admission, and it is crucial for accurate coding, appropriate reimbursement, and overall patient care. Identifying the principal diagnosis requires thorough assessment, medical history review, and collaboration among healthcare professionals to ensure accurate documentation and optimal treatment.
2.
The _______________ is a snapshot of a patient’s status and includes everything from social issues to disease processes as well as critical paths and clinical pathways that focused on a specific disease process or pathway.
Correct Answer
B. Care plan
Explanation
A care plan is a comprehensive document that summarizes a patient's status, including social issues, disease processes, and specific clinical pathways. It serves as a roadmap for healthcare professionals, outlining the necessary steps and interventions to provide optimal care. This plan guides healthcare providers in delivering personalized and effective treatment to address the patient's specific needs and goals.
3.
Which of the following organizations is not an accrediting body for long-term acute-care hospitals?
Correct Answer
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Explanation
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) is not an accrediting body for long-term acute-care hospitals. CMS is a federal agency that administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs, providing healthcare coverage for eligible individuals. While CMS sets regulations and standards for healthcare providers, it does not directly accredit hospitals. On the other hand, the Joint Commission, American Osteopathic Association, and Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities are all recognized accrediting bodies for long-term acute-care hospitals.
4.
Which of the following is not a component of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
Correct Answer
A. The resident's health record
Explanation
The resident's health record is not a component of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI). The RAI is a standardized tool used in long-term care facilities to assess residents' needs and develop care plans. It includes a standard Minimum Data Set (MDS) which collects information on various aspects of the resident's health and functioning. Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs) are also part of the RAI and are used to guide further assessment and care planning for specific issues. Utilization guidelines provide instructions on how to use the RAI effectively. However, the resident's health record is not specifically mentioned as a component of the RAI.
5.
What percentage of all healthcare services are performed in an ambulatory-care setting?
Correct Answer
C. More than 50 percent
Explanation
More than 50 percent of all healthcare services are performed in an ambulatory-care setting. This means that the majority of healthcare services are provided outside of a hospital or inpatient setting, such as in clinics, doctors' offices, and outpatient centers. This highlights the shift towards more outpatient care and the importance of accessible and convenient healthcare options for patients.
6.
______________ play a major role in referral and tracking of the patient’s use of specialty providers.
Correct Answer
A. Primary-care pHysicians
Explanation
Primary-care physicians play a major role in referral and tracking of the patient's use of specialty providers. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the overall healthcare of their patients, including referring them to specialists when necessary. They track the patient's use of specialty providers to ensure continuity of care and to monitor the effectiveness of the treatment plan. By working closely with other healthcare professionals, primary-care physicians can ensure that their patients receive appropriate and timely specialty care.
7.
Coordination of care is dependent upon the quality of ________________ provided by each of the healthcare providers involved in the patient’s treatment.
Correct Answer
B. Documentation
Explanation
Coordination of care is dependent upon the quality of documentation provided by each of the healthcare providers involved in the patient's treatment. This means that accurate and comprehensive documentation of the patient's medical history, symptoms, treatments, and progress is crucial for effective coordination among healthcare providers. Documentation ensures that all providers have access to the necessary information to make informed decisions and provide appropriate care. It also helps to ensure continuity of care and prevent errors or misunderstandings. Without proper documentation, coordination of care becomes challenging and may result in suboptimal patient outcomes.
8.
How are patients using ambulatory surgical centers for elective surgical procedures classified?
Correct Answer
D. Outpatient
Explanation
Patients using ambulatory surgical centers for elective surgical procedures are classified as outpatient. Ambulatory surgical centers are specifically designed for patients who do not require an overnight stay and can safely undergo surgery and recover within a few hours. Outpatient classification indicates that the patient is not admitted to the hospital and can return home on the same day of the procedure.
9.
According to Federated Ambulatory Surgery Association, what percentage of all surgeries in America are outpatient?
Correct Answer
C. 70 percent
Explanation
According to the Federated Ambulatory Surgery Association, 70 percent of all surgeries in America are outpatient. This means that the majority of surgeries in the country do not require an overnight stay in the hospital and can be performed on an outpatient basis. Outpatient surgeries are typically less invasive and have shorter recovery times, allowing patients to return home the same day.
10.
What organizations offer a wide range of healthcare services and coverage in return for prepayment of a fixed fee, regardless of the services the individual enrollees use?
Correct Answer
B. Health maintenance organizations
Explanation
Health maintenance organizations (HMOs) offer a wide range of healthcare services and coverage in return for prepayment of a fixed fee, regardless of the services the individual enrollees use. HMOs focus on preventive care and emphasize the importance of primary care physicians as gatekeepers for accessing specialist care. They typically have a network of healthcare providers that enrollees must use in order to receive coverage. This model aims to provide comprehensive and cost-effective healthcare services to individuals.
11.
Which of the following is not one of the three predefined formats required for meaningful documentation in the ambulatory health record?
Correct Answer
C. Patient-oriented
Explanation
The question is asking for the format that is not one of the three predefined formats required for meaningful documentation in the ambulatory health record. The three predefined formats are source-oriented, integrated system, and problem-oriented. The correct answer, patient-oriented, is not one of these formats.
12.
Because it was developed to enhance comprehensive patient care, which record system format is especially appropriate for health maintenance organizations (HMOs) and neighborhood health centers, where a team of professionals offers total patient care?
Correct Answer
A. Problem-oriented record system
Explanation
The problem-oriented record system is especially appropriate for health maintenance organizations (HMOs) and neighborhood health centers because it was developed to enhance comprehensive patient care. In this system, a team of professionals offers total patient care by focusing on the patient's problems rather than the source of the information. This allows for a more holistic approach to healthcare and facilitates collaboration among the healthcare team.
13.
Which of the following is not an element that should be included on a problem or summary list?
Correct Answer
B. Short-term illnesses that were resolved quickly
Explanation
The correct answer is "Short-term illnesses that were resolved quickly" because the question asks for an element that should not be included on a problem or summary list. Short-term illnesses that were resolved quickly do not have long-term clinical significance for the patient and therefore do not need to be included on such a list. The other options, major medical and surgical problems, dates of onset and resolution for each problem, and abnormal signs and symptoms that have the potential to become significant problems, are all elements that should be included on a problem or summary list.
14.
A comprehensive _____________________ is designed to minimize the facility’s potential risks and, when an incident occurs, its losses.
Correct Answer
B. Risk management program
Explanation
A comprehensive risk management program is designed to minimize the facility's potential risks and losses when an incident occurs. This program involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and potential impact, implementing measures to mitigate those risks, and developing plans to respond to incidents. By having a risk management program in place, the facility can effectively manage and minimize the negative consequences of incidents, protecting both the facility and its stakeholders.
15.
The Joint Commission’s ORYX and Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services’ OASIS are data sets that function as benchmarks of ___________________within and among organizations.
Correct Answer
D. Performance improvement
Explanation
The Joint Commission's ORYX and Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' OASIS are data sets that function as benchmarks of performance improvement within and among organizations.
16.
In data quality management, _________________ is the purpose for which data are collected
Correct Answer
C. Application
Explanation
In data quality management, the purpose for which data are collected is referred to as the application. This means that data is collected with a specific goal or objective in mind, such as improving decision-making, supporting business operations, or conducting research. The application helps determine the type and quality of data that needs to be collected, as well as the methods and processes for data collection.
17.
In data quality management, _________________ is the processes by which data elements are accumulated.
Correct Answer
B. Collection
Explanation
In data quality management, the process by which data elements are accumulated is called collection. This involves gathering and gathering data from various sources and storing it in a central repository or database. Collection is an important step in ensuring the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of data for analysis and decision-making purposes.
18.
In data quality management, _________________ is the processes and systems used to archive data and data journals
Correct Answer
B. Warehousing
Explanation
Warehousing is the correct answer because it refers to the processes and systems used to store and manage data in a structured and organized manner. Data warehousing involves extracting data from various sources, transforming it into a consistent format, and loading it into a centralized repository. This allows for easy access, analysis, and retrieval of data, as well as maintaining data integrity and security.
19.
In data quality management, _________________ is the process of translating data into information utilized for an application
Correct Answer
A. Analysis
Explanation
Analysis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of examining and interpreting data to gain insights and make informed decisions. In data quality management, analysis involves transforming raw data into meaningful information that can be used for specific applications or purposes. This process helps identify patterns, trends, and relationships within the data, enabling organizations to optimize their operations and improve decision-making.
20.
Which of the following is not among the general categories that govern admission criteria?
Correct Answer
B. Medical necessity
Explanation
The correct answer is "Medical necessity." This option is not among the general categories that govern admission criteria. The other options, such as medical stability (excluding hospice patients), desire for home care (or hospice), and financial resources, are all factors that can be considered when determining admission criteria. However, medical necessity is not typically used as a category for admission criteria.
21.
Medicare Conditions of Participation 484.55 requires that each patient receive, and a home health agency provide a patient-specific ______________________________
Correct Answer
C. Comprehensive assessment
Explanation
Medicare Conditions of Participation 484.55 mandates that each patient must receive a patient-specific comprehensive assessment. This means that a home health agency is required to conduct a thorough evaluation of the patient's health condition, needs, and goals in order to develop an individualized care plan. The comprehensive assessment helps ensure that the patient receives appropriate and tailored care that addresses their specific needs and promotes their overall well-being.
22.
To prevent denials, coding personnel are advised to use the most specific diagnosis codes and to ensure that the ______________________ is always listed as the principal diagnosis.
Correct Answer
B. Terminal diagnosis
Explanation
To prevent denials, coding personnel are advised to use the most specific diagnosis codes and to ensure that the terminal diagnosis is always listed as the principal diagnosis. This is because the terminal diagnosis represents the primary disease or condition that the patient is suffering from, and it is crucial to accurately capture this information for proper coding and billing purposes. By listing the terminal diagnosis as the principal diagnosis, it ensures that the coding reflects the severity and complexity of the patient's condition, leading to appropriate reimbursement and avoiding potential denials.
23.
Medicare has defined four general hospice care levels and has assigned different reimbursement rates to each. Which of the following is not a Medicare-defined hospice care level?
Correct Answer
C. Continuous inpatient care
24.
Which of the following is not a function of the plan of care documentation?
Correct Answer
A. Give a clear picture of the patient's status before the onset of the acute illness
Explanation
The plan of care documentation is not intended to give a clear picture of the patient's status before the onset of the acute illness. It is primarily focused on reflecting an accurate diagnosis, listing treatments and services to be provided, indicating the frequency and duration of each treatment, and noting that subsequent services have been provided within the bounds of the plan of care and any subsequent physician's orders.
25.
How often must homecare agencies electronically report all OASIS data collected on all applicable patients in a format that meets Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) electronic data and editing specifications?
Correct Answer
D. Every month
Explanation
Homecare agencies must electronically report all OASIS data collected on all applicable patients in a format that meets CMS electronic data and editing specifications every month. This means that the agencies need to submit the data on a monthly basis to comply with the reporting requirements set by CMS.
26.
What is the key characteristic of the problem-oriented health record (POMR)?
Correct Answer
A. Problem list
Explanation
The key characteristic of the problem-oriented health record (POMR) is the inclusion of a problem list. This list helps to organize and prioritize the patient's health concerns and allows for a systematic approach to addressing each problem. By having a problem list, healthcare providers can easily track the patient's progress and ensure that all issues are being addressed appropriately.
27.
What mechanism allows two or more databases to transfer data between them?
Correct Answer
A. Clinical data repository
Explanation
A clinical data repository is a mechanism that allows two or more databases to transfer data between them. It serves as a centralized storage system where data from different databases can be stored and accessed. This enables seamless sharing and exchange of data between different databases, ensuring efficient communication and collaboration between healthcare systems and organizations.
28.
What process helps to ensure the quality and completeness of health record content in both paper-based and computer-based environments?
Correct Answer
A. Standardization of data-capture tools
Explanation
Standardization of data-capture tools helps to ensure the quality and completeness of health record content in both paper-based and computer-based environments. By using standardized tools, healthcare providers can capture consistent and accurate data, reducing errors and ensuring that all necessary information is included in the health record. This process helps to improve the overall quality of the health record and supports effective communication and decision-making in healthcare settings.
29.
Dr. Smith orders 500 mg of penicillin by mouth tid for Jane Doe in the hospital emergency department. The computer sends an alert to Dr. Smith to tell her that the patient, Jane Doe, is allergic to penicillin. What type of computer system is Dr. Smith using?
Correct Answer
C. Clinical decision support
Explanation
Dr. Smith is using a clinical decision support system. This system alerts her about the patient's allergy to penicillin, helping her make an informed decision about the medication order.
30.
Which of the following represents one of the biggest challenges in Electronic Health Record (EHR) development and implementation?
Correct Answer
C. A workable data capture process
Explanation
A workable data capture process is one of the biggest challenges in Electronic Health Record (EHR) development and implementation. This refers to the process of collecting and inputting data into the EHR system in a systematic and efficient manner. Without a well-defined and effective data capture process, it can be difficult to accurately and consistently capture patient information, leading to potential errors and inconsistencies in the EHR system. This challenge is crucial to address in order to ensure the reliability and usability of the EHR system.
31.
What is the term used in reference to the systematic review of sample health records to determine whether documentation standards are being met?
Correct Answer
A. Qualitative analysis
Explanation
Qualitative analysis is the term used in reference to the systematic review of sample health records to determine whether documentation standards are being met. This type of analysis involves examining the content and quality of the records to assess if they meet the required standards. It focuses on the subjective interpretation of the data rather than numerical or statistical measurements.
32.
A(n)_________________________ is a unique personal identifier that is entered by the author of Electronic Health Record (EHR) documentation using computer technology.
Correct Answer
A. Electronic signature
Explanation
An electronic signature is a unique personal identifier that is entered by the author of Electronic Health Record (EHR) documentation using computer technology. It serves as a way to verify the authenticity and integrity of the documentation, ensuring that it was indeed created by the author and has not been tampered with. This helps to maintain the security and accuracy of EHRs, allowing healthcare providers to confidently rely on the information contained within them.
33.
What type of authentication is created when a person signs his or her name on a pen pad and the signature is automatically converted and affixed to a computer document?
Correct Answer
B. Digital signature
Explanation
A digital signature is created when a person signs their name on a pen pad and the signature is automatically converted and affixed to a computer document. A digital signature is a type of authentication that uses cryptographic techniques to verify the authenticity and integrity of a digital document. It provides assurance that the document has not been tampered with and that it was signed by the claimed signer.
34.
_________ is the process of providing proof of the authorship of health record documentation?
Correct Answer
D. Authentication
Explanation
Authentication is the process of providing proof of the authorship of health record documentation. This process ensures that the person who created or modified the record can be identified and verified. Authentication is important in maintaining the integrity and accuracy of health records, as it helps to prevent unauthorized access or tampering of the information. It also helps to establish accountability and responsibility for the content of the records.
35.
What type of health record analysis assesses the completeness and accuracy of patient health records?
Correct Answer
C. Quantitative analysis
Explanation
Quantitative analysis is a type of health record analysis that focuses on assessing the completeness and accuracy of patient health records. This type of analysis involves the use of numerical data and statistical methods to measure and evaluate the quality of the records. It helps identify any gaps or errors in the documentation, ensuring that the records are comprehensive and reliable.
36.
Health Information Management (HIM) professionals sometimes monitor the records of current inpatients as well as closed records after the patients have been discharged or transferred. What is this process called?
Correct Answer
D. Ongoing record review
Explanation
The process described in the question, where Health Information Management (HIM) professionals monitor the records of current inpatients as well as closed records after the patients have been discharged or transferred, is called ongoing record review. This process involves regularly reviewing and evaluating patient records to ensure accuracy, completeness, and compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. It helps in identifying any issues or discrepancies in the records and allows for appropriate actions to be taken to address them.
37.
________________ is/are the origin of recorded information that is attributed to a specific individual or entity.
Correct Answer
B. Authorship
Explanation
Authorship refers to the origin of recorded information that is attributed to a specific individual or entity. It signifies that a particular person or entity is responsible for creating or producing the information. In the context of recorded information, authorship is crucial as it helps in identifying who is accountable for the content and ensures transparency and accountability.
38.
Each individual that has been authorized to document in the electronic health record uses a ___________ in the form of a code or password.
Correct Answer
C. Unique personal identifier
Explanation
Each individual authorized to document in the electronic health record needs a way to identify themselves. This identification can be done using a unique personal identifier, which can be in the form of a code or password. This identifier ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the electronic health record and can document in it.
39.
Borrowing record entries from another source and representing or displaying past as current documentation and are examples of a potential breach of ____________.
Correct Answer
B. Authorship integrity
Explanation
Borrowing record entries from another source and representing or displaying past as current documentation are examples of a potential breach of authorship integrity. This means that someone is falsely claiming ownership or authorship of the records, which can lead to inaccuracies and misrepresentation of information.
40.
Inadequate functions that make it impossible to detect when an entry was modified or borrowed from another source and misrepresented as an original entry by an authorized user is an example of a potential breach of ____________.
Correct Answer
C. auditing integrity
Explanation
Inadequate functions that make it impossible to detect when an entry was modified or borrowed from another source and misrepresented as an original entry by an authorized user can potentially compromise the integrity of auditing. This means that the accuracy and reliability of the auditing process can be compromised, as it becomes difficult to ensure that the recorded information is genuine and has not been tampered with.
41.
Automated registration entries that generate erroneous patient identification—possibly leading to patient safety and quality of care issues, enabling fraudulent activity involving patient identity theft, or providing unjustified care for profit—is an example of a potential breach of ____________.
Correct Answer
B. Patient identification and demograpHic accuracy
Explanation
Automated registration entries that generate erroneous patient identification can lead to various issues related to patient safety and quality of care. It can enable fraudulent activities such as patient identity theft, where someone may use another person's information for their own benefit. Additionally, it can result in providing unjustified care for profit, where healthcare providers may bill for services that were not actually provided. Therefore, this situation represents a potential breach of patient identification and demographic accuracy, as it involves incorrect identification and demographic information being generated through automated registration entries.
42.
Automated insertion of clinical data using templates or similar tools with predetermined components using uncontrolled and uncertain clinical relevance is an example of a potential breach of ____________.
Correct Answer
C. Documentation integrity
Explanation
Automated insertion of clinical data using templates or similar tools with predetermined components can potentially lead to a breach of documentation integrity. This is because the use of these tools may result in the insertion of inaccurate or irrelevant clinical information, compromising the integrity and accuracy of the patient's medical records. It is important to ensure that any automated processes used for data insertion are carefully monitored and controlled to maintain the integrity of the documentation.