Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional Exam! Trivia Quiz
This is an Rcsp Trivia Quiz: Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional Exam! It is created for all the students who are preparing to tackle the exam this year, do you feel ready to tackle it? Why don’t you give it a shot and keep an eye out for more like it to perfect your skills? All the best!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What types of IPSEC encryption are supported?
- A.
3DES
- B.
DES
- C.
Null
- D.
/dev/null
- E.
Frodo, don't wear the ring!
Correct Answer(s)
B. DES
C. NullExplanation
The types of IPSEC encryption supported are DES and Null. DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 56-bit key. It is widely used but considered less secure compared to newer encryption algorithms. Null encryption, on the other hand, does not provide any encryption and is used when confidentiality is not required.Rate this question:
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- 2.
CLI Command to restart the optimization service and clear the data store?
Correct Answer(s)
restart cleanExplanation
The correct answer is "restart clean" because this CLI command is used to restart the optimization service and clear the data store. By using this command, the optimization service will be restarted, allowing any changes or updates to take effect. Additionally, the data store will be cleared, removing any existing data and starting fresh. This command ensures that the optimization service is reset and ready to perform optimally with a clean data store.Rate this question:
- 3.
CLI Command to just restart optimization?
Correct Answer(s)
restartExplanation
The correct answer is "restart" because it is the CLI command that specifically restarts the optimization process. By entering this command, the optimization process will be stopped and then started again, allowing for any changes or updates to take effect.Rate this question:
- 4.
CLI Command to reboot the SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
reloadExplanation
The correct answer is "reload." This command is used to reboot the SH (Security and Health) appliance. By entering this command, the system will initiate a restart, allowing any necessary updates or changes to take effect. It is a common command used in network administration to ensure the smooth operation of the appliance.Rate this question:
- 5.
CLI Command to Shutdown the SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
reload haltExplanation
The CLI command "reload halt" is used to shut down the SH (Security Harvesting) appliance. This command initiates a reload of the appliance and halts all processes and services, effectively shutting it down.Rate this question:
- 6.
CLI Command to show the version of the software, the build information, the product model and the system specs?
Correct Answer(s)
show versionExplanation
The "show version" command is used to display information about the software version, build information, product model, and system specifications. This command provides a comprehensive overview of the system's configuration and helps in troubleshooting and identifying compatibility issues. By using this command, users can quickly access important information about the software and hardware components of the system.Rate this question:
- 7.
CLI Command to display the RIOS boot image?
Correct Answer(s)
show bootvarExplanation
The correct answer is "show bootvar" because this CLI command is used to display the boot image on a RIOS device. By entering this command, the user can view the current boot image and its associated details, such as the file name, version, and location. This information is helpful for troubleshooting purposes or when managing the boot process on the device.Rate this question:
- 8.
CLI Command to display high-speed TCP (HSTCP) settings?
Correct Answer(s)
show tcp highspeedExplanation
The correct CLI command to display high-speed TCP (HSTCP) settings is "show tcp highspeed". This command is used to view the configuration and settings related to high-speed TCP, which is a feature that optimizes the performance of TCP connections over high-speed networks. By using this command, users can access information such as the current status of HSTCP, any enabled options, and other relevant details.Rate this question:
- 9.
CLI Command to display available RIOS images loaded onto the appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
show imagesExplanation
The command "show images" is used to display the available RIOS images that are loaded onto the appliance. This command provides a list of the images that can be used for the appliance's operating system. It allows users to see the different versions or variations of the RIOS image that are available for selection.Rate this question:
- 10.
CLI Command to display the SH appliance interfaces?
Correct Answer(s)
show interfaces xxExplanation
XXX can be aux, primary, lanX_X, wanX_XRate this question:
- 11.
CLI Command to clear all statistics?
Correct Answer(s)
stats clear-allExplanation
The CLI command "stats clear-all" is used to clear all statistics. By executing this command, all the accumulated statistics data will be reset or erased. This can be useful in situations where you want to start collecting fresh statistics or if you need to clear the existing statistics for any specific reason.Rate this question:
- 12.
CLI Command to clear the hardware-related event log?
Correct Answer(s)
clear hardware error-logExplanation
The correct CLI command to clear the hardware-related event log is "clear hardware error-log". This command is used to remove any error logs or events related to the hardware components of a device. By executing this command, the event log will be cleared, allowing for a fresh start in tracking any new hardware-related errors or events.Rate this question:
- 13.
CLI Command to set the connection pooling thread count?
Correct Answer(s)
service connection pooling 0.0.0.0 0 {value}Explanation
The given CLI command "service connection pooling 0.0.0.0 0 {value}" is used to set the connection pooling thread count. The "{value}" in the command represents the desired number of threads for connection pooling. By using this command, the user can configure the connection pooling settings to allocate a specific number of threads for handling incoming connections, which can help optimize the performance and resource utilization of the system.Rate this question:
- 14.
CLI Command to set the default in-path port for the SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
service default-port {port}Explanation
The CLI command "service default-port {port}" is used to set the default in-path port for the SH appliance. By specifying the desired port number in place of "{port}", the command configures the appliance to use that particular port as the default in-path port. This allows the appliance to receive and process network traffic through the specified port, enabling it to perform its intended functions effectively.Rate this question:
- 15.
CLI Command to set the VLAN tag for the VLAN the appliance belongs to?
Correct Answer(s)
in-path interface inpathx_x vlan xxExplanation
The correct CLI command to set the VLAN tag for the VLAN the appliance belongs to is "in-path interface inpathx_x vlan xx". This command is used to configure the in-path interface on the appliance and specify the VLAN tag for the corresponding VLAN. By specifying the appropriate inpathx_x interface and VLAN number, the command ensures that the appliance is correctly configured to operate within the desired VLAN.Rate this question:
- 16.
CLI Command to enable connection forwarding (failover)?
Correct Answer(s)
in-path neighbor enableExplanation
The CLI command "in-path neighbor enable" is used to enable connection forwarding or failover. This command allows the device to forward traffic to a neighbor device in case of a failure or congestion in the primary path. By enabling in-path neighbor, the device can seamlessly switch the traffic to an alternate path, ensuring continuous connectivity and minimizing disruptions.Rate this question:
- 17.
CLI Command to configure a connection forwarding partner?
Correct Answer(s)
in-path neighbor ip address {ipaddr} [port {port}]Explanation
This CLI command is used to configure a connection forwarding partner in a network device. By specifying the IP address and port of the neighbor, the device can establish a connection and forward traffic to it. The "in-path" keyword indicates that the device will intercept and forward traffic in the network path. The command allows for flexibility by providing an optional port parameter, which can be used to specify a specific port for the connection.Rate this question:
- 18.
CLI Command to allow the SH to initiate a WCCP connection GRE but actually return L2 packets (performance optimization)?
Correct Answer(s)
wccp l2-return enableExplanation
The correct answer is "wccp l2-return enable". This command enables the return of Layer 2 packets instead of Layer 3 packets in a WCCP connection using GRE. This can be used as a performance optimization technique, as returning Layer 2 packets can reduce processing overhead and improve overall network performance.Rate this question:
- 19.
CLI Command to setup the active netflow timer?
Correct Answer(s)
ip flow-setting active_to xxExplanation
The correct CLI command to setup the active netflow timer is "ip flow-setting active_to xx". This command is used to configure the active timeout value for NetFlow data records. The "active_to" parameter specifies the time interval after which an active flow entry will be exported if there is no activity. The "xx" represents the desired timeout value in minutes. By setting this value, the network administrator can control how long an active flow should be idle before it is exported.Rate this question:
- 20.
CLI Command to setup the inactive netflow timer?
Correct Answer(s)
ip flow-setting inactive_to xxExplanation
The correct CLI command to setup the inactive netflow timer is "ip flow-setting inactive_to xx". This command allows the user to specify the amount of time (in seconds) that a flow can be inactive before it is considered expired and removed from the netflow cache. By setting the value of "xx" to a desired number of seconds, the user can configure the netflow timer according to their specific requirements.Rate this question:
- 21.
CLI Command to set the in-path gateway address for the SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
ip in-path-gateway inpathx_x {ipaddr}Explanation
The correct CLI command to set the in-path gateway address for the SH appliance is "ip in-path-gateway inpathx_x {ipaddr}". This command is used to configure the in-path gateway address for the SH (Security Heartbeat) appliance, where "inpathx_x" represents the specific in-path interface and "{ipaddr}" represents the IP address of the gateway. By using this command, the administrator can specify the gateway address for the SH appliance, allowing it to communicate with other devices on the network.Rate this question:
- 22.
CLI Command (on a Cisco router) to force the router to verify the availability of the next-hop address in PBR?
Correct Answer(s)
set ip next-hop verify-availabilityExplanation
The correct answer is "set ip next-hop verify-availability." This command is used on a Cisco router to force the router to verify the availability of the next-hop address in Policy-Based Routing (PBR). PBR allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on policies defined by the network administrator. By using the "verify-availability" option with the "set ip next-hop" command, the router will check if the next-hop address is reachable before forwarding traffic to it. This helps ensure that the router only forwards traffic to available next-hop addresses, improving network reliability and performance.Rate this question:
- 23.
CLI Command to set the logging level of the SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
logging local xxExplanation
The CLI command "logging local xx" is used to set the logging level of the SH (Security and Health) appliance. The "xx" represents the desired logging level, which can be a number between 0 and 7. This command allows administrators to control the amount of logging information generated by the appliance, with higher numbers indicating more detailed logging. By setting the logging level, administrators can customize the level of detail they require for troubleshooting and monitoring purposes.Rate this question:
- 24.
Which of these are valid logging levels?
- A.
Emergency
- B.
Hazard
- C.
Alert
- D.
Fine
- E.
Critical
Correct Answer(s)
A. Emergency
C. Alert
E. CriticalExplanation
The valid logging levels in this question are Emergency, Alert, and Critical. These levels are commonly used in logging systems to categorize the severity of events or messages. Emergency level represents the highest level of severity, indicating a system-wide failure or a critical situation. Alert level signifies a condition that requires immediate attention. Critical level indicates a serious issue that needs to be addressed. Fine and Hazard are not recognized logging levels in most logging systems, hence they are not valid options.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of these are valid logging levels?
- A.
Error
- B.
Problem
- C.
Warning
- D.
Algorythm
- E.
Notice
Correct Answer(s)
A. Error
C. Warning
E. NoticeExplanation
The valid logging levels in this question are Error, Warning, and Notice. These levels are commonly used in logging systems to categorize and prioritize log messages based on their severity or importance. Error level is used to indicate critical errors or failures, Warning level is used for potential issues or non-critical errors, and Notice level is used for general informational messages. The options Problem and Algorithm are not valid logging levels as they are not commonly used or recognized in logging systems.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of these are valid logging levels?
- A.
Info
- B.
Commercial
- C.
Debug
Correct Answer(s)
A. Info
C. DebugExplanation
The valid logging levels are "Info" and "Debug". Logging levels are used to categorize the severity or importance of log messages. "Info" level is used to provide general information about the program's execution, while "Debug" level is used for more detailed and low-level information that is useful for debugging purposes. "Commercial" is not a valid logging level as it does not convey any meaningful information about the program's execution or debugging process.Rate this question:
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- 27.
CLI command to set the syslog trap level?
Correct Answer(s)
logging trap xxExplanation
The correct answer is "logging trap xx". This CLI command is used to set the syslog trap level. The "logging trap" command is followed by the desired trap level, represented by "xx". This command allows the user to specify the severity level at which syslog messages should be logged and sent to the syslog server. By setting the trap level to a specific value, the user can control which types of events are logged and reported.Rate this question:
- 28.
CLI command to display the IPSEC configuration information and connections?
Correct Answer(s)
show ip securityExplanation
The correct CLI command to display the IPSEC configuration information and connections is "show ip security". This command will provide detailed information about the IPSEC configuration, including the security policies, encryption algorithms, authentication methods, and active IPSEC connections. It allows administrators to monitor and troubleshoot IPSEC connections on the network.Rate this question:
- 29.
CLI command to generate a system dump?
Correct Answer(s)
debug generate dumpExplanation
The correct CLI command to generate a system dump is "debug generate dump". This command is used to create a system dump, which is a snapshot of the current state of the system. System dumps are useful for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues, as they provide detailed information about the system's processes, memory usage, and other important data. By using this command, administrators can capture and analyze system information to identify and resolve problems effectively.Rate this question:
- 30.
CLI command to display the system dump files?
Correct Answer(s)
show files debug-dumpExplanation
The CLI command "show files debug-dump" is used to display the system dump files. This command allows users to view the dump files generated by the system for debugging purposes. By using this command, users can access and analyze the dump files to troubleshoot any issues or errors that may have occurred in the system.Rate this question:
- 31.
CLI command to delete existing debug files?
Correct Answer(s)
file debug-dump delete {filename}Explanation
The given CLI command "file debug-dump delete {filename}" is the correct command to delete existing debug files. It specifies the "file debug-dump" command to delete debug files and uses the "delete" option followed by the name of the file to be deleted within curly braces. This command effectively removes the specified debug file from the system.Rate this question:
- 32.
What is the directory path to the binaries?
Correct Answer(s)
/opt/rbt/binExplanation
The directory path to the binaries is "/opt/rbt/bin".Rate this question:
- 33.
What is the directory path to the kernel modules?
Correct Answer(s)
Explanation
The directory path to the kernel modules is the location where the kernel modules are stored in the file system. It is typically found in the /lib/modules directory. The kernel modules are important components of the operating system that can be dynamically loaded and unloaded to provide additional functionality or support for hardware devices. The directory path is necessary for managing and configuring the kernel modules.Rate this question:
- 34.
What is the directory path to the core dumps?
Correct Answer(s)
/var/opt/tms/snapshots/Explanation
The directory path to the core dumps is /var/opt/tms/snapshots/.Rate this question:
- 35.
What is the directory path to the system dumps?
Correct Answer(s)
/var/opt/tms/sysdumps/Explanation
The correct answer is /var/opt/tms/sysdumps/. This is the directory path where the system dumps are stored. The "/var" directory is typically used for variable data files, while "/opt" is used for optional or third-party software. The "tms" directory likely refers to a specific software or system. Finally, the "sysdumps" directory is where the system dumps are located, which are typically files that contain information about the state of the system at a specific point in time.Rate this question:
- 36.
What is the directory path to the TCP dumps?
Correct Answer(s)
/var/opt/tms/tcpdumps/Explanation
The directory path to the TCP dumps is "/var/opt/tms/tcpdumps/". This means that the TCP dumps can be found in the "tcpdumps" folder, which is located within the "tms" folder, which in turn is located within the "opt" folder, which is finally located within the "var" directory.Rate this question:
- 37.
What is the directory path to the upgrade RIOS images?
Correct Answer(s)
/var/opt/tms/images/Explanation
The directory path to the upgrade RIOS images is "/var/opt/tms/images/". This means that the upgrade RIOS images can be found in the "images" folder, which is located within the "tms" folder, which in turn is located within the "opt" folder, which is finally located within the "var" folder.Rate this question:
- 38.
What is the CLI command for a tcpdump (from the tcpdump page of the flashcards)? Assume you are listening on the lan0_0 interface, that you need to snapshot the first 576 bytes of each packet and that you want to save it to a file called client-lan00.cap.
Correct Answer(s)
tcpdump -i lan0_0 -s 576 -w client-lan00.capExplanation
The correct CLI command for a tcpdump is "tcpdump -i lan0_0 -s 576 -w client-lan00.cap". This command specifies the interface to listen on as "lan0_0", sets the snapshot length to 576 bytes, and saves the captured packets to a file named "client-lan00.cap".Rate this question:
- 39.
What does the -s parameter mean in the tcpdump command?
Correct Answer(s)
The length of each packet snapshot in bytes
Packet snapshot size
Packet snapshot length in bytes
Packet snapshot lengthExplanation
The -s parameter in the tcpdump command refers to the length of each packet snapshot in bytes. It determines the amount of data that will be captured from each packet during the network traffic analysis. By specifying the value for this parameter, the user can control the level of detail in the captured packets.Rate this question:
- 40.
What does the -w parameter mean in the tcpdump command?
Correct Answer(s)
Write the raw packets to the designated file
Filename
Filename to write raw packets toExplanation
The -w parameter in the tcpdump command is used to specify the file where the raw packets will be written. It allows the user to save the captured network traffic into a file for later analysis or reference. By using this parameter, the user can define the filename or path where the raw packets will be stored. This option is useful when there is a need to capture and analyze network traffic for troubleshooting or security purposes.Rate this question:
- 41.
What does the -i parameter mean in the tcpdump command?
Correct Answer(s)
Listen on the specified interface
InterfaceExplanation
The -i parameter in the tcpdump command is used to specify the interface on which tcpdump should listen for network traffic. By providing the interface name as an argument to the -i parameter, tcpdump will capture and display all the packets flowing through that specific interface. This allows users to monitor and analyze network traffic on a specific network interface, helping in troubleshooting and network analysis tasks.Rate this question:
- 42.
What does the -r parameter mean in the tcpdump command?
Correct Answer(s)
Read packets from the specified file
ReadExplanation
The -r parameter in the tcpdump command is used to read packets from a specified file. By using this parameter, tcpdump can analyze the contents of the file and display the information about the captured network traffic. This allows users to examine packets that have been previously captured and saved to a file, providing a way to review and analyze network activity at a later time.Rate this question:
- 43.
What does the -v parameter mean in the tcpdump command?
Correct Answer(s)
(Slightly more) verboseExplanation
The -v parameter in the tcpdump command stands for "verbose". When used, it provides a slightly more detailed output, giving additional information about the captured packets. This can be useful for troubleshooting network issues or analyzing network traffic.Rate this question:
- 44.
What are the three default licenses on the SH appliance?
- A.
SDR (Scalable Data Referencing)
- B.
IPSEC
- C.
Windows file servers (CIFS)
- D.
Transaction Prediction
- E.
Microsoft Exchange (MAPI)
Correct Answer(s)
A. SDR (Scalable Data Referencing)
C. Windows file servers (CIFS)
E. Microsoft Exchange (MAPI)Explanation
The three default licenses on the SH appliance are SDR (Scalable Data Referencing), Windows file servers (CIFS), and Microsoft Exchange (MAPI).Rate this question:
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- 45.
What problem does overlapping open solve?
Correct Answer(s)
Explanation
Overlapping open solves the problem of potential resource conflicts when multiple processes or tasks need to access the same resource simultaneously. By allowing processes to overlap their open operations, it ensures that resources can be efficiently shared without causing delays or blocking other processes. This can improve overall system performance and increase resource utilization.Rate this question:
- 46.
True or False:In overlapping open, the server steelhead handles file-locking operations on behalf of the client.
Correct Answer(s)
TrueExplanation
In overlapping open, the server steelhead handles file-locking operations on behalf of the client. This means that when a client requests to open a file, the server steelhead is responsible for managing any file-locking operations that need to be performed, such as preventing other clients from modifying the file at the same time. This allows for efficient and streamlined file access in a networked environment.Rate this question:
- 47.
Is overlapping open enabled by default on the SH?
Correct Answer(s)
NoExplanation
Overlapping open is not enabled by default on the SH.Rate this question:
- 48.
When should you use a straight-through cable when wiring a SH appliance?
Correct Answer(s)
Explanation
You should use a straight-through cable when wiring a SH (Switch-Hub) appliance when connecting it to a computer or any other network device. Straight-through cables are used to connect devices of different types, such as a switch and a computer, where one end of the cable uses the TIA/EIA-568-A standard and the other end uses the TIA/EIA-568-B standard. This allows for proper transmission of data signals between the devices.Rate this question:
- 49.
What appliance port(s) are used in in-path deployments?
Correct Answer(s)
lanx_x and wanx_x
LAN and WAN
Lan and WanExplanation
The correct answer is "lanx_x and wanx_x". In in-path deployments, the appliance ports used are typically labeled as "lanx_x" and "wanx_x". These ports are specifically designed to handle the traffic coming from the LAN (Local Area Network) and WAN (Wide Area Network) respectively. The other options "LAN and WAN" and "Lan and Wan" are incorrect as they do not specify the specific port names used in in-path deployments.Rate this question:
- 50.
What appliance port(s) are used in virtual or logical in-path deployments?
Correct Answer(s)
The WAN port
WANExplanation
The correct answer is the WAN port. In virtual or logical in-path deployments, the WAN port is used as the appliance port. This port is responsible for connecting the appliance to the wide area network (WAN) and allows the appliance to monitor and control the traffic flowing through it. The WAN port is crucial in these deployments as it enables the appliance to perform its intended functions effectively.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 27, 2009Quiz Created by
Rgeneson
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