1.
How do you track the performance of business intelligence platform services in realtime?
Correct Answer
A. Schedule probes to run at specified intervals.
Explanation
The correct answer is to schedule probes to run at specified intervals. This means that the performance of the business intelligence platform services can be tracked in real-time by setting up probes that will run at regular intervals to monitor and measure various metrics. These probes will provide continuous updates on the performance of the platform services, allowing for timely identification of any issues or areas that need improvement. By scheduling these probes, businesses can ensure that they have up-to-date and accurate information about the performance of their business intelligence platform services.
2.
Which types of source document use global profile targets?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Crystal Reports
B. Web Intelligence
Explanation
Crystal Reports and Web Intelligence are the types of source documents that use global profile targets. These tools allow users to create reports and analyze data from various sources. Global profile targets are used to define and manage the security and access rights for different users or groups in the system. By using global profile targets, administrators can control the level of access and permissions granted to users when they interact with Crystal Reports and Web Intelligence.
3.
Why would you use the Monitoring application in the SAP BusinessObjects business intelligence platform?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. To check system response time
B. To determine if more licenses or system resources are required
Explanation
The Monitoring application in the SAP BusinessObjects business intelligence platform is used to check the system response time and determine if more licenses or system resources are required. By monitoring the system response time, users can ensure that the system is performing optimally and identify any potential bottlenecks. Additionally, monitoring can help determine if additional licenses or system resources, such as memory or storage, are needed to support the growing demands of the business intelligence platform.
4.
What are the benefits of using Federation?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
B. It enables a consistent rights policy across multiple offices for global organizations.
D. It obtains information faster by processing reports at remote sites where data resides
Explanation
Using Federation enables a consistent rights policy across multiple offices for global organizations. This means that organizations can ensure that all users across different locations have the same access rights and permissions, promoting consistency and security. Additionally, Federation allows for obtaining information faster by processing reports at remote sites where data resides. This eliminates the need to transfer large amounts of data to a central location for processing, saving time and improving efficiency.
5.
Which of the following object types can you use to create an information space in SAP BusinessObjects Explorer?
Correct Answer
B. UNX
Explanation
You can use the UNX object type to create an information space in SAP BusinessObjects Explorer. UNX stands for Universe Design Tool Extended, which is a metadata layer that allows you to access and analyze data from various sources. It provides a semantic layer that simplifies the data structure and makes it easier for users to explore and analyze the data in a self-service manner. By using UNX, you can create a structured and organized information space that enables users to navigate and interact with the data effectively.
6.
In the Monitoring tool, what information does a trending graph provide?
Correct Answer
C. Historical metric data generated by probes and servers
Explanation
A trending graph in the monitoring tool provides historical metric data generated by probes and servers. This means that it shows information about past performance and trends over time, allowing users to analyze and track changes in various metrics. It does not provide real-time information about the use of client tools, the current state of the Server Intelligence Agent, or real-time information about license consumption.
7.
You have two Input File Repository Servers (FRSs).How do you determine which one is active?
Correct Answer
B. Use the metrics of each FRS in the Central Management Console
Explanation
To determine which Input File Repository Server (FRS) is active, you can use the metrics of each FRS in the Central Management Console. The Central Management Console provides information and statistics about the different FRSs, including their status and activity. By analyzing the metrics of each FRS, such as the number of files processed or the current status, you can identify the active FRS. This allows you to monitor and manage the FRSs effectively based on their performance and workload.
8.
Which of the following tasks can you perform using the wdeploy tool?
Correct Answer
B. Separate static content from dynamic content
Explanation
The wdeploy tool can be used to separate static content from dynamic content. This means that it allows users to distinguish and isolate static elements, such as images or stylesheets, from dynamic elements, such as server-generated content. By separating these two types of content, it becomes easier to manage and update them independently, resulting in a more efficient and streamlined deployment process.
9.
You want to compare the contents of the system database and the contents of the FileRepository Servers.Which tool do you use?
Correct Answer
A. Repository Diagnostic Tool
Explanation
The correct answer is Repository Diagnostic Tool. This tool is specifically designed to compare the contents of the system database and the contents of the FileRepository Servers. It allows users to identify any inconsistencies or discrepancies between the two sources and take necessary actions to resolve them. The Repository Diagnostic Tool provides detailed information and analysis of the system database and FileRepository Servers, helping users ensure data integrity and accuracy.
10.
What is a dynamic recipient?
Correct Answer
B. A publication recipient that is listed in an external document
Explanation
A dynamic recipient refers to a publication recipient that is listed in an external document. This means that the recipient's information is included in a separate document outside of the business intelligence platform. This allows for flexibility and easy updating of recipient information as it can be modified in the external document without directly accessing the platform.
11.
How can you copy the settings from server A to server B?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
B. Enable the "Set Configuration Template" property for server A, then enable the "Use
Configuration Template" property on server B.
D. Clone server A and name it server B.
Explanation
To copy the settings from server A to server B, one option is to enable the "Set Configuration Template" property for server A, which allows you to save the current configuration as a template. Then, you can enable the "Use Configuration Template" property on server B, which applies the saved template to server B. Another option is to clone server A and name it server B, which creates an exact replica of server A with the same settings and configurations.
12.
Which tool can you use to find the database type of the Auditing Data Store?
Correct Answer
D. Central Management Console
Explanation
The Central Management Console is the tool that can be used to find the database type of the Auditing Data Store. This tool provides a centralized interface for managing and monitoring various aspects of the SAP system, including the auditing data store. It allows administrators to configure and troubleshoot the auditing data store, and one of the features it provides is the ability to determine the database type being used by the auditing data store.
13.
Which of the following tasks can you perform using the SAP BusinessObjects LifecycleManagement Console?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Promote Business Intelligence objects from one system to another system in the same
version
C. Back up your Business Intelligence content
Explanation
The SAP BusinessObjects Lifecycle Management Console allows users to promote Business Intelligence objects from one system to another system in the same version. This means that users can easily transfer and deploy their BI objects across different systems without any compatibility issues. Additionally, the console also provides the option to back up Business Intelligence content, ensuring that important data and reports are securely stored.
14.
What metrics are measured as default probes in the monitoring application?Please choose the correct answer.
Correct Answer
B. System metrics that indicate the success of a certain task, for example, CMS ping
Explanation
The correct answer is not "System metrics that indicate the success of a certain task, for example, CMS ping." The correct answer is "Application metrics that monitor indicators such as the number of user connections."
15.
Which of the following tasks are performed by the Central Management Server?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
B. Manage auditing
D. Maintain a list of servers and IP addresses.
Explanation
The Central Management Server is responsible for managing auditing, which involves monitoring and recording activities within the system for security and compliance purposes. It also maintains a list of servers and IP addresses, which helps in organizing and managing the network infrastructure efficiently.
16.
Which tool can you use to create a Server Intelligence Agent?
Correct Answer
B. Central Configuration Manager
Explanation
The Central Configuration Manager (CCM) is the tool used to create and manage Server Intelligence Agents (SIA) in SAP BusinessObjects. The CCM allows administrators to configure, start, stop, and manage various servers within the BusinessObjects environment, including the creation of Server Intelligence Agents. The other tools listed (Central Management Console, Lifecycle Management Console, and Upgrade Management Tool) are used for different administrative and management tasks within SAP BusinessObjects but are not used for creating SIAs.
17.
When viewing a Crystal report using the ActiveX viewer, what is the extension of the
viewable file?
Correct Answer
B. RPT
Explanation
The extension of the viewable file when using the ActiveX viewer for Crystal Reports is .RPT. This extension indicates a Crystal Reports file, which is the native format for reports created and viewed within Crystal Reports. The ActiveX viewer allows users to view, navigate, and interact with the .RPT files directly. The other extensions (HTML, XML, and EPF) are used for different types of files and purposes.
18.
Which of the following applications can you install using the SAP BusinessObjects ClientTools installation program?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Translation Management Tool
D. Business View Manager
Explanation
The SAP BusinessObjects ClientTools installation program allows you to install the Translation Management Tool and the Business View Manager. These applications can be installed alongside other tools and applications provided by SAP BusinessObjects. The installation program provides a convenient way to set up and configure these tools, enabling users to effectively manage translations and create and manage business views within the SAP BusinessObjects environment.
19.
What can you use to update data source settings on the system database?
Correct Answer
B. Central Configuration Manager
Explanation
The Central Configuration Manager is used to update data source settings on the system database. It provides a centralized platform for managing and configuring various aspects of the system, including data source settings. This tool allows administrators to easily make changes to the system database settings, ensuring that the data sources are properly configured and up to date. It simplifies the process of updating and maintaining the system database, making it an essential tool for managing data source settings.
20.
You want to promote the system database from the development environment to the testenvironment.Which option do you select in the Central Configuration Manager?
Correct Answer
B. Copy Data from Another Data Source
Explanation
To promote the system database from the development environment to the test environment, you would select the option "Copy Data from Another Data Source" in the Central Configuration Manager. This option allows you to copy the data from one data source to another, which is useful when you want to replicate the database from one environment to another.
21.
Why would you choose the "Web Tier" installation type when installing the BusinessIntelligence platform?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
C. To install and configure a new Web Application Server
E. To add web applications to a supported Java server
Explanation
The "Web Tier" installation type is chosen when installing the Business Intelligence platform because it allows for the installation and configuration of a new Web Application Server. This is necessary to enable the deployment of web applications on a supported Java server. Additionally, choosing the "Web Tier" installation type also allows for the addition of web applications to an existing cluster, further enhancing the capabilities of the Business Intelligence platform.
22.
What can you include when you install the SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligenceplatform?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Web Application Server
D. Lifecycle Manager
Explanation
When installing the SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence platform, you can include the Web Application Server and Lifecycle Manager. The Web Application Server is necessary for hosting and running the BI platform, while the Lifecycle Manager is used for managing the lifecycle of the BI platform, including installation, upgrades, and patches.
23.
What should you include in a disaster recovery plan for the business intelligence platform?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Customized code on the Web Application Server
D. Contents of File Repository Servers
E. Backup of the system database
Explanation
In a disaster recovery plan for the business intelligence platform, it is important to include the customized code on the Web Application Server as it contains any modifications or enhancements made to the platform. The contents of the File Repository Servers should also be included as they store important files and documents related to the platform. Additionally, a backup of the system database should be included to ensure that all the data is protected and can be restored in case of a disaster.
24.
When performing a silent installation, which command line switch do you use to read theinstallation options from the response file?
Correct Answer
C. -r
Explanation
The correct answer is -r. When performing a silent installation, the -r command line switch is used to read the installation options from the response file. The response file contains pre-defined installation settings and parameters, allowing for a streamlined and automated installation process without the need for user input. By using the -r switch, the installer can retrieve the necessary information from the response file and proceed with the installation using the specified options.
25.
What can you do using the Upgrade Management tool?
Correct Answer
B. Import users from BusinessObjects Enterprise
Explanation
The Upgrade Management tool allows users to import users from BusinessObjects Enterprise. This means that users can easily transfer user information, such as usernames, roles, and permissions, from one system to another. This can be helpful when migrating from one BusinessObjects Enterprise system to another, as it eliminates the need to manually recreate user accounts and settings.
26.
What is the difference between the predefined access levels "View" and "View on Demand"?
Correct Answer
A. View on Demand includes "Refresh report's data", View does not.
Explanation
The main difference between the "View" and "View on Demand" access levels is that "View on Demand" includes the ability to refresh the report's data, allowing users to generate an updated version of the report with the latest data. The "View" access level typically only allows users to view existing instances of the report without refreshing the data. Other permissions like exporting report data, sending to email destinations, and viewing document instances can vary based on specific configurations but are not the primary distinction between these two access levels.
27.
Which of the following rights are granted on the predefined access level "Schedule"?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
A. Delete instances that the user owns.
B. View document instances.
E. Copy objects to another folder
Explanation
The predefined access level "Schedule" typically grants users the ability to delete instances they own, view document instances, and copy objects to another folder. These permissions allow users to manage their own scheduled report instances effectively. However, the rights to refresh the report's data and modify the rights users have to objects are generally not included in this access level, as these actions require higher-level permissions or administrative roles.
28.
Three user groups have one custom access level defined for a specific folder. The securityrequirements have been changed. Now, each of these three groups requires different rightsto access the folder.How can you achieve this
Correct Answer
C. Make two copies of the existing access level, modify them, and apply them to the folder
Explanation
To achieve different rights for each of the three user groups, making two copies of the existing access level, modifying them, and applying them to the folder is the correct approach. By creating copies of the existing access level, each group can have a unique set of rights tailored to their specific requirements. Modifying these copies allows customization of the access levels for each group. Applying these modified access levels to the folder ensures that each group has the appropriate rights to access it according to the changed security requirements.
29.
What should you consider when creating a content plan?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The specific rights for folders and objects
D. The organization of users into groups
Explanation
When creating a content plan, it is important to consider the specific rights for folders and objects. This involves determining who has access to certain folders and objects within the content plan. Additionally, it is crucial to consider the organization of users into groups. This helps in managing and assigning appropriate access levels and permissions to different groups of users. By considering these factors, the content plan can be effectively structured and implemented.
30.
On a business intelligence platform, the following values can be assigned to rights: uk.co.certification.simulator.question pool.PList@7f7cc80
Which of the following calculations of effective rights is correct?
Correct Answer
A. G + D + NS = D
Explanation
In a business intelligence platform, effective rights are calculated based on specific precedence rules where Denied (D) takes precedence over Granted (G) and Not Specified (NS). Therefore, when combining G, D, and NS, the resulting effective right is Denied (D). For example, G + D + NS = D because Denied overrides both Granted and Not Specified. Similarly, other combinations follow the rule that Denied has the highest precedence, ensuring that any explicit denial of rights supersedes granted or unspecified rights.
31.
What do you have to consider when defining an instance management plan?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
A. The duration period for retaining instances
B. The maximum number of retained instances
Explanation
When defining an instance management plan, two important factors to consider are the duration period for retaining instances and the maximum number of retained instances. The duration period determines how long instances will be stored before they are deleted, while the maximum number of retained instances sets a limit on the number of instances that can be stored at any given time. These factors help ensure efficient use of resources and prevent excessive storage usage. The other options, such as available storage space on the Input File Repository Server and the number of job servers generating instances, may also be important considerations but are not mentioned as correct answers in this question.
32.
User A designs a document and exports it to a public folder on the business intelligenceplatform. User B moves the document to a different folder. User C schedules thedocument. User D opens the latest instance of the document.At this point, who is the owner of the instance?
Correct Answer
C. User C
Explanation
User C is the owner of the instance because they scheduled the document. Scheduling the document implies that User C has control over the document and its instances, including the latest one opened by User D. User A designed the document and exported it, User B moved it, but User C's action of scheduling gives them ownership over the instance.
33.
There is a top-level folder called "Sales." This folder has two sub-folders "Asia" and"Europe." You move a document from the "Asia" folder to the "Europe" folder.What happens to the rights for this document by default?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
A. Rights from the "Europe" folder are applied to the document rights.
C. Rights specified on the document are unchanged.
Explanation
When a document is moved from the "Asia" folder to the "Europe" folder, the default behavior is that the rights from the "Europe" folder are applied to the document rights. This means that the document will inherit the access rights and permissions set for the "Europe" folder. However, the rights specified on the document itself will remain unchanged. This means that any specific access rights or permissions set directly on the document will not be affected by the move.
34.
What belongs in a content management plan?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
B. Categories
C. Folders
E. Users and groups
Explanation
A content management plan typically includes categories, folders, and users and groups. Categories help organize and classify content, making it easier to navigate and search for specific information. Folders provide a hierarchical structure for storing and organizing content within the system. Users and groups are important for managing access and permissions, allowing different individuals or teams to have appropriate levels of control and collaboration within the content management system. Servers and nodes are not typically included in a content management plan, as they are more technical components related to the infrastructure and architecture of the system.
35.
Which server is used to view and modify Crystal reports with the SAP Crystal Reports Server-embedded Software Development Kit (SDK)?
Correct Answer
C. Crystal Reports 2013 Report Application Server
Explanation
The Crystal Reports 2013 Report Application Server is the correct server used to view and modify Crystal reports with the SAP Crystal Reports Server-embedded Software Development Kit (SDK). This server handles the interactions and modifications of reports via the SDK, allowing for report viewing, processing, and manipulation through the embedded software development tools. The other servers listed are responsible for different functions such as processing report data and caching reports but are not specifically designated for SDK interactions.
36.
A scheduled Web Intelligence document failed.Which of the following servers could be the cause of this problem?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
C. Adaptive Job Server
D. Web Intelligence Processing Server
E. Output File Repository Server
Explanation
The Adaptive Job Server could be the cause of the problem because it is responsible for executing scheduled jobs, including Web Intelligence documents. The Web Intelligence Processing Server could also be the cause as it is responsible for processing and generating Web Intelligence reports. Additionally, the Output File Repository Server could be the cause if there are issues with saving or accessing the output files generated by the Web Intelligence document.
37.
User1 scheduled, ran, and viewed the first page of an instance of a Crystal report. User2can view the first page of the report as well. However, when User2 tries to view the secondpage of the report, an error message is displayed.Which server could be the cause?
Correct Answer
B. Crystal Reports Processing Server
Explanation
The Crystal Reports Processing Server could be the cause of the error message. This server is responsible for processing and generating the report pages. Since User2 is able to view the first page but encounters an error when trying to view the second page, it suggests that there may be an issue with the processing server's ability to generate subsequent pages of the report.
38.
A user wants to create Web Intelligence documents. However, the necessary option is notavailable on the BI launch pad.What could be the reason?
Correct Answer
D. The user does not have rights to use the Web Intelligence application.
Explanation
The reason could be that the user does not have the necessary rights or permissions to access and use the Web Intelligence application. This could be due to restrictions set by the system administrator or the user's role and privileges within the system. Without the proper rights, the user will not be able to create Web Intelligence documents.
39.
You want to grant a group of users the right to create, save, modify, and refresh WebIntelligence documents. You assign View on Demand access to the universes.For which additional object types must you set permissions?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Application
D. Connection
E. Folder
Explanation
To grant the group of users the right to create, save, modify, and refresh WebIntelligence documents, you need to set permissions for Application, Connection, and Folder object types. Setting permissions for the Application object type ensures that the users have access to the WebIntelligence application itself. Setting permissions for the Connection object type allows the users to establish connections to the necessary data sources. Finally, setting permissions for the Folder object type enables the users to organize and store their WebIntelligence documents effectively.
40.
Which of the following steps will help you test whether the installation of the SAPBusinessObjects Business Intelligence platform was successful?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Correct Answer(s)
B. Schedule and view a report
D. Log onto the Central Management Console
Explanation
To test whether the installation of the SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence platform was successful, you can perform the following steps. Firstly, schedule and view a report to ensure that the reporting functionality is working properly. Secondly, log onto the Central Management Console (CMC) to verify that the administrative console is accessible and functioning correctly. These two steps will help confirm the successful installation and functionality of the SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence platform.
41.
Users are not able to launch the Monitoring application on the SAP BusinessObjectsBusiness Intelligence platform.What should you check to troubleshoot this?
Correct Answer
D. Whether the appropriate version of Adobe Flash Player is installed
Explanation
To troubleshoot the issue of not being able to launch the Monitoring application on the SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence platform, one should check whether the appropriate version of Adobe Flash Player is installed. This is because the Monitoring application might require a specific version of Adobe Flash Player to function properly. If the installed version is not compatible, it can cause the application to fail to launch.
42.
Which object is retrieved from the Input File Repository Server when you refresh a WebIntelligence document?Please choose the correct answer.
Correct Answer
B. Universe
Explanation
When you refresh a WebIntelligence document, the object that is retrieved from the Input File Repository Server is the Universe. A Universe is a semantic layer that allows users to access and analyze data in a structured and meaningful way. It acts as a bridge between the database and the reporting tool, providing a simplified view of the data for end users. Refreshing the document ensures that the data in the Universe is up to date, allowing users to make informed decisions based on the latest information.
43.
You can view a Crystal report and refresh it when viewing it on the BI launch pad.However, this report fails when the system runs a schedule request.
Correct Answer
A. The database connection in the report does not match the one on the Adaptive Job
Server.
Explanation
The report fails when the system runs a schedule request because the database connection in the report does not match the one on the Adaptive Job Server. This means that the report is using a different database connection than what is configured on the server, causing the schedule request to fail.