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Just some questions tossed together from my notes. A little heavy on the hardware side of things.
Questions and Answers
1.
What is the minimum processor speed required to install/upgrade Windows 2000?
A.
233Mhz
B.
133Mhz
C.
333Mhz
D.
500Mhz
E.
550Mhz
Correct Answer
B. 133Mhz
Explanation The minimum processor speed required to install/upgrade Windows 2000 is 133Mhz. This means that the computer must have a processor with a clock speed of at least 133 megahertz in order to successfully install or upgrade the operating system.
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2.
What is the minimum processor speed required to install/upgrade Windows XP?
A.
Pentium II
B.
300Mhz
C.
233Mhz
D.
133Mhz
E.
Pentium I
Correct Answer
C. 233Mhz
Explanation The minimum processor speed required to install or upgrade Windows XP is 233Mhz. This means that the computer must have a processor with a clock speed of at least 233 megahertz in order to run the operating system.
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3.
What 3 operating systems can you upgrade to Windows 2000 from?
A.
Windows ME
B.
Windows 98
C.
Windows NT Workstation
D.
Windows 95
E.
Windows Millenium
Correct Answer(s)
B. Windows 98 C. Windows NT Workstation D. Windows 95
Explanation Windows 2000 can be upgraded from Windows 98, Windows NT Workstation, and Windows 95. These operating systems are compatible with Windows 2000 and can be upgraded to it without any issues. Windows ME and Windows Millennium are not listed as options for upgrading to Windows 2000.
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4.
What operating systems can you upgrade to Windows XP from?
A.
Windows 2000
B.
Windows NT Server
C.
Windows 98
D.
Windows ME
E.
Windows NT Workstation
Correct Answer(s)
A. Windows 2000 C. Windows 98 D. Windows ME E. Windows NT Workstation
Explanation You can upgrade to Windows XP from Windows 2000, Windows 98, Windows ME, and Windows NT Workstation.
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5.
How much memory is required to install/upgrade to Windows 2000 or Windows XP?
A.
128mb
B.
64mb
C.
256mb
D.
32mb
Correct Answer
B. 64mb
Explanation Windows 2000 and Windows XP require a minimum of 64mb of memory to be installed or upgraded. This amount of memory is necessary for the operating system to run smoothly and efficiently. Having less than 64mb of memory may result in slower performance and potential compatibility issues with certain software or hardware.
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6.
How much free hard drive space is required for a Windows XP install/upgrade?
A.
2gig
B.
2.5gig
C.
1.5gig
D.
650mb
Correct Answer
C. 1.5gig
Explanation The correct answer is 1.5gig because Windows XP requires at least 1.5 gigabytes of free hard drive space for installation or upgrade. This is the minimum amount of space needed to accommodate the operating system files and any additional software or updates that may be installed during the process. Having less than 1.5 gigabytes of free space may result in installation errors or insufficient storage for the operating system to function properly.
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7.
What is the maximum length that a USB cable can be?
A.
1 meter
B.
5 meters
C.
4.5 meters
D.
4 meters
E.
10 meters
Correct Answer
B. 5 meters
Explanation USB cables have a maximum length of 5 meters due to limitations in the USB specification. Beyond this length, the signal may degrade and cause data loss or errors. To extend the length further, USB repeaters or hubs can be used to amplify the signal. However, using longer cables or excessive extensions can result in unreliable connections or slower data transfer speeds.
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8.
How many pins does a USB cable have?
A.
9
B.
6
C.
4
D.
15
E.
25
Correct Answer
C. 4
Explanation A USB cable typically has 4 pins. These pins are used for transmitting data and providing power. The four pins are the VCC (power), D+ (data), D- (data), and GND (ground) pins.
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9.
What is the maximum number of USB devices supported?
A.
63
B.
25
C.
50
D.
100
E.
127
Correct Answer
E. 127
Explanation The maximum number of USB devices supported is 127. This is because USB uses a 7-bit addressing system, allowing for a maximum of 127 unique addresses. Each USB device connected to a computer requires an address, and with 127 available addresses, that is the maximum number of devices that can be supported.
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10.
What is IEEE1394 commonly called?
A.
USB
B.
Serial
C.
Parallel
D.
Firewire
E.
Hotlines
Correct Answer
D. Firewire
Explanation IEEE1394 is commonly called Firewire. Firewire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for fast data transfer between devices such as computers, digital cameras, and external hard drives. It was developed by Apple and was initially used in their Macintosh computers. Firewire provides a fast and reliable connection, making it popular in the audio and video industry for tasks like transferring large files or streaming high-definition video.
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11.
What are the two Firewire standards?
A.
IEEE 1394a
B.
IEEE 1394b
C.
IEEE 1394n
D.
IEEE 1394g
E.
IEEE 1394ab
Correct Answer(s)
A. IEEE 1394a B. IEEE 1394b
Explanation The two Firewire standards are IEEE 1394a and IEEE 1394b. These standards were developed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) and are used for high-speed data transfer between devices such as computers, digital cameras, and external hard drives. IEEE 1394a supports data transfer rates of up to 400 Mbps, while IEEE 1394b supports rates of up to 800 Mbps or 1.6 Gbps. These standards differ in terms of their speed and physical connectors, with IEEE 1394b offering faster speeds and a different connector type compared to IEEE 1394a.
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12.
What is the maximum number of Firewire devices are supported?
A.
127
B.
72
C.
150
D.
50
E.
63
Correct Answer
E. 63
13.
Does Firewire always required a PC to be used?
A.
Yes
B.
No
C.
Maybe
D.
Sometimes
Correct Answer
B. No
Explanation Firewire does not always require a PC to be used. Firewire is a type of high-speed data transfer technology that can be used to connect various devices, such as cameras, external hard drives, and audio interfaces, to a computer. However, Firewire can also be used to directly connect compatible devices to each other, without the need for a computer. This allows for direct data transfer between devices, such as transferring files from a camera to an external hard drive, without the involvement of a PC.
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14.
What is RS-232 more commonly known as?
A.
USB
B.
Serial
C.
Parallel
D.
Centronix
E.
R2-D2's brother
Correct Answer
B. Serial
Explanation RS-232 is more commonly known as Serial. RS-232 is a standard that defines the electrical characteristics of communication between computers and peripheral devices. It is widely used for serial communication and is often used to connect devices such as modems, printers, and mice to a computer.
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15.
Is the serial port on a computer male or female?
A.
Male
B.
Female
Correct Answer
A. Male
Explanation The serial port on a computer is referred to as "male" because it has pins or connectors that protrude outwards, which can be inserted into the corresponding female connectors on devices such as printers or modems. This terminology is used to differentiate between the two types of connectors based on their physical design and how they connect to each other.
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16.
What is the maximum distance of a serial cable?
A.
10 feet
B.
15 feet
C.
20 feet
D.
50 feet
E.
12 feet
Correct Answer
D. 50 feet
Explanation The maximum distance of a serial cable is 50 feet. This means that the cable can transmit data reliably up to a distance of 50 feet without any signal loss or degradation. Beyond this distance, the signal may weaken and result in errors or loss of data. Therefore, it is important to consider the length of the cable when setting up a serial connection to ensure proper communication between devices.
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17.
What is the standard for Parallel?
A.
RS-232
B.
IEEE 1394a
C.
IEEE1394b
D.
802.11g
E.
IEEE 1284
Correct Answer
E. IEEE 1284
Explanation The standard for Parallel is IEEE 1284. This standard defines the physical and electrical characteristics of the parallel port used for connecting devices such as printers to a computer. It specifies the communication protocol and data transfer rates for parallel communication. The other options listed, RS-232, IEEE 1394a, IEEE1394b, and 802.11g, are not related to parallel communication standards.
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18.
How fast is 802.11a?
A.
11mb
B.
15mb
C.
24mb
D.
54mb
E.
75mb
Correct Answer
D. 54mb
Explanation 802.11a is a wireless networking standard that operates on the 5 GHz frequency band. It has a maximum data transfer rate of 54 Mbps, which makes it faster than the other options provided (11mb, 15mb, 24mb, and 75mb). This standard is known for its high-speed and reliable performance, making it suitable for applications that require fast data transmission such as video streaming or online gaming.
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19.
Which of these are wireless networks?
A.
802.11a
B.
802.11g
C.
802.11n
D.
802.12a
E.
802.11b
Correct Answer(s)
A. 802.11a B. 802.11g C. 802.11n E. 802.11b
Explanation The correct answer includes 802.11a, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11b. These are all wireless network standards commonly used for Wi-Fi connectivity. 802.12a is not a valid wireless network standard, making it an incorrect answer choice.
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20.
Why catagory cable would you use for a gigabit network?
A.
Cat 5
B.
Cat 5e
C.
Cat 6
D.
Cat 6e
E.
Cat 4
Correct Answer
C. Cat 6
Explanation Cat 6 cable would be the best choice for a gigabit network because it has higher bandwidth and can support faster data transfer speeds compared to Cat 5, Cat 5e, and Cat 4 cables. Cat 6 cables are designed to handle speeds up to 10 Gbps and have better insulation and shielding to minimize crosstalk and interference. This makes Cat 6 cable more reliable and suitable for high-performance networks like gigabit networks.
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21.
What type of RAM is found on CPU's?
A.
DDR
B.
SDRAM
C.
SRAM
D.
RIMM
E.
CRIMM
Correct Answer
C. SRAM
Explanation SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory, which is a type of RAM that is commonly found on CPUs. Unlike dynamic RAM (DRAM), SRAM does not require constant refreshing of data, making it faster and more reliable. It is often used for cache memory in CPUs as it allows for quick access to frequently used data.
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22.
What is Latency?
A.
Checks for errors
B.
A coating on the RAM for cooling
C.
How long it takes the processor to find the RAM
D.
Amount of time for a CPU request to be filled by the RAM
Correct Answer
D. Amount of time for a CPU request to be filled by the RAM
Explanation Latency refers to the amount of time it takes for a CPU request to be fulfilled by the RAM. It represents the delay between the initiation of a process and its completion. In the context of computer systems, latency is an important factor as it directly affects the overall performance and responsiveness of the system. A lower latency indicates faster data retrieval and processing, while a higher latency can result in slower performance and delays in executing tasks.
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23.
What is ECC?
A.
Effective Character Correction
B.
Energy Checking Component
C.
Error Correcting Code
D.
Error Corrected Code
Correct Answer
C. Error Correcting Code
Explanation ECC stands for Error Correcting Code. Error Correcting Code is a technique used to detect and correct errors that occur during data transmission or storage. It is a coding scheme that adds extra bits to the data being transmitted or stored, allowing the receiver to identify and correct any errors that may have occurred. This helps to ensure the integrity and accuracy of the data.
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24.
Are Parity and ECC the same thing?
A.
Yes
B.
No
Correct Answer
B. No
Explanation Parity and ECC (Error Correction Code) are not the same thing. Parity is a simple method used to detect errors in data transmission by adding an extra bit to the binary representation of the data. It can only detect errors, but cannot correct them. On the other hand, ECC is a more advanced technique that not only detects errors but also corrects them by adding redundant bits to the data. ECC is more reliable and commonly used in systems where data integrity is crucial, such as computer memory or communication protocols.
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25.
What is the difference between Parity and ECC?
A.
ECC checks for errors only
B.
Parity checks for errors only
C.
ECC checks for errors and corrects them
D.
Parity checks for errors and corrects them
E.
Nothing they are the same thing
Correct Answer
C. ECC checks for errors and corrects them
Explanation ECC checks and corrects the errors it finds while Parity only checks for errors and cannot correct them *if* it even finds them at all as it was not very effective in finding errors.
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26.
What is a CRIMM?
A.
Super fast memory found on processors
B.
Memory that needs to be installed in pairs
C.
Sticks that fill unused memory banks in RAMBUS systems
D.
RAMBUS memory
E.
RAMBUS memory that needs installed in pairs
Correct Answer
C. Sticks that fill unused memory banks in RAMBUS systems
Explanation A CRIMM is a stick that fills unused memory banks in RAMBUS systems. RAMBUS memory refers to the type of memory used in RAMBUS systems, but it is not specific to CRIMMs. CRIMMs are specifically designed to fill unused memory banks in RAMBUS systems, allowing for better performance and efficiency. They do not need to be installed in pairs, unlike some other types of memory.
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27.
What type of memory had to be installed in pairs, needed all memory banks filled and only worked in Intel based sysetms?
A.
DDR
B.
SDRAM
C.
RAMBUS
D.
CRIMM
E.
DIMM
Correct Answer
C. RAMBUS
Explanation RAMBUS is the correct answer because it is a type of memory that had to be installed in pairs, needed all memory banks filled, and only worked in Intel based systems. RAMBUS memory modules had to be installed in pairs to achieve optimal performance, and all memory banks had to be filled with RAMBUS modules for the system to function properly. Additionally, RAMBUS memory was specifically designed for use in Intel based systems, making it incompatible with other types of systems.
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28.
What is the laser printer process?
A.
Write, Develop,Transfer, Fuse, Clean, Charge
B.
Clean, Charge, Develop, Write, Transfer, Fuse
C.
Develop, Write, Transfer, Charge, Fuse, Clean
D.
Clean, Condition, Write, Develop, Transfer, Fuse
Correct Answer
D. Clean, Condition, Write, Develop, Transfer, Fuse
Explanation The laser printer process starts with cleaning the drum to remove any previous toner residue. Then, the drum is conditioned to ensure proper charging. Next, the laser beam writes the desired image or text onto the drum. After that, the drum transfers the toner onto the paper. Finally, the toner is fused onto the paper using heat and pressure.
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29.
If your laser printer gives you a black page what is probably worng?
A.
The toner has spilled
B.
Bad transfer wire
C.
Bad primary corona wire
D.
Bad fuser
Correct Answer
C. Bad primary corona wire
Explanation If a laser printer gives you a black page, the most likely issue is a bad primary corona wire. The primary corona wire is responsible for applying a positive charge to the paper, which attracts the negatively charged toner particles. If the primary corona wire is faulty, it may not be able to apply the proper charge, resulting in a black page.
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30.
If your laser printers produces a white (or blank) page what is mostly likely wrong? (choose 2)
A.
You are out of toner
B.
Bad fuser
C.
Bad corona wire
D.
Bad laser scanner
Correct Answer(s)
C. Bad corona wire D. Bad laser scanner
Explanation If your laser printer produces a white or blank page, it is most likely due to a bad corona wire or a bad laser scanner. The corona wire is responsible for charging the drum unit, which is necessary for transferring toner onto the paper. If the corona wire is bad, it may not be able to properly charge the drum unit, resulting in a blank page. Similarly, if the laser scanner is faulty, it may not be able to properly scan and transfer the image onto the drum unit, causing a blank page to be printed.
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31.
What are two common printer languages?
A.
PAC
B.
HAL
C.
PCL
D.
Postscript
E.
Javascript
Correct Answer(s)
C. PCL D. Postscript
Explanation PCL (Printer Control Language) and Postscript are two common printer languages used for communicating with printers. PCL is a page description language developed by Hewlett-Packard and is widely used in laser printers. It provides a standardized way to control various printer functions. Postscript, on the other hand, is a page description language developed by Adobe Systems. It is commonly used in high-end printers and is known for its ability to accurately render complex graphics and fonts. Both PCL and Postscript are widely supported by printers and allow for efficient and high-quality printing.
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32.
What is the size of Type 1 PC Cards?
A.
4.5mm
B.
5.5mm
C.
3.3mm
D.
10mm
E.
10.5mm
Correct Answer
C. 3.3mm
Explanation Type 1 PC Cards have a size of 3.3mm.
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33.
What type of PC Card slot is mostly for hard drives?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type A
E.
Type B
Correct Answer
C. Type III
Explanation Type III PC Card slot is mostly used for hard drives. Type III PC Cards are thicker and have a larger form factor compared to Type I and Type II PC Cards. This larger size allows for the insertion of hard drives, which require more space than other types of PC Cards. Type III PC Cards are commonly used for adding additional storage to laptops or other devices.
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34.
PS/2 connectors have how many pins?
A.
5
B.
6
C.
9
D.
15
E.
25
Correct Answer
B. 6
Explanation PS/2 connectors have 6 pins. The PS/2 connector is a type of connector commonly used for connecting keyboards and mice to computers. It has 6 pins, with 4 of them used for data transmission (2 for keyboard and 2 for mouse) and the other 2 pins used for power.
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35.
How far can Class 2 (the most common class of bluetooth) Bluetooth transmit?
A.
5 meters
B.
1 meter
C.
10 meters
D.
100 meters
Correct Answer
C. 10 meters
Explanation Bluetooth Class 2 devices, which are the most common type of Bluetooth devices, have a typical range of up to 10 meters. This means that they can transmit data wirelessly to other devices within a distance of 10 meters. However, it's important to note that the actual range can vary depending on factors such as interference, obstacles, and the specific device's capabilities.
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36.
True or False IrDA must be "in-line of sight" to work?
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation IrDA (Infrared Data Association) technology uses infrared light to transmit data between devices. In order for the communication to occur, the devices need to have a direct line of sight with each other. This means that there should not be any obstacles blocking the infrared signals between the devices. Therefore, the statement "IrDA must be 'in-line of sight' to work" is true.
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37.
If a 1Ghz processor is installed in a system and it is only running at 700Mhz what is the problem?
A.
The processor was mismarked
B.
Hyper-threading is taking place
C.
Under-clocking is happening
D.
Throttling is taking place
E.
The processor has 2 cores
Correct Answer
D. Throttling is taking place
Explanation Throttling is taking place means that the processor is intentionally being slowed down to a lower clock speed, in this case, from 1GHz to 700MHz. Throttling can occur due to various reasons, such as to reduce heat generation or to conserve power. It is possible that the system is programmed to throttle the processor under certain conditions, or there could be an issue with the cooling system causing the processor to throttle itself to prevent overheating.
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38.
Which Class of fire extinguisher is for electrical fires?
A.
Class A
B.
Class B
C.
Class C
D.
Class D
Correct Answer
C. Class C
Explanation Class C fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires caused by electrical equipment. These extinguishers contain non-conductive agents, such as carbon dioxide or dry chemical powder, which do not conduct electricity and are safe to use on live electrical equipment. They are effective in suppressing electrical fires by removing the heat and cutting off the oxygen supply. Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustibles, Class B for flammable liquids, and Class D for flammable metals.
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39.
What type of backup takes the longest to restore from?
A.
Copy
B.
Incremental
C.
Differential
D.
Full
E.
Procrastinatal
Correct Answer
D. Full
Explanation A full backup takes the longest to restore from because it includes all the data and files on a system. This means that during the restoration process, all the data needs to be copied back onto the system, which can be time-consuming. In contrast, incremental and differential backups only include the changes made since the last backup, making the restoration process quicker. The option "Procrastinatal" is not a valid backup type and can be disregarded.
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40.
In Windows XP what program scans the hard drive for errors and then fixes them? (Choose ONLY 1)
A.
Scandisk
B.
Check Disk
C.
Defrag
D.
Disk Cleanup
Correct Answer
B. Check Disk
Explanation Check Disk is the correct answer because it is a built-in Windows XP program that scans the hard drive for errors and then fixes them. Scandisk, Defrag, and Disk Cleanup are other built-in programs in Windows XP, but they have different functions. Scandisk is used to check and fix errors on the hard drive, Defrag is used to optimize the file system for faster access, and Disk Cleanup is used to free up disk space by deleting unnecessary files.
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41.
ESD can damage components with as little as _____ Volts?
A.
100
B.
50
C.
75
D.
30
E.
10
Correct Answer
D. 30
Explanation ESD, or electrostatic discharge, can damage components with as little as 30 Volts. This means that even a small amount of static electricity can cause significant harm to electronic devices. It is important to take precautions, such as using anti-static mats or wearing grounding wrist straps, to prevent ESD and protect sensitive components from damage.
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42.
What is the current standard for power management?
A.
ATAPI
B.
RAMBUS
C.
ACPI
D.
ASCAP
E.
NAACP
Correct Answer
C. ACPI
Explanation ACPI stands for Advanced Configuration and Power Interface. It is the current standard for power management in computers. ACPI allows the operating system to control and manage power usage, including the ability to put devices into low-power states and adjust power settings. It provides a standardized way for hardware and software to communicate and work together to optimize power consumption, leading to improved energy efficiency and longer battery life.
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43.
Which takes longer to resume computing from?
A.
Standby
B.
Sleep
C.
Hibernation
D.
Procrastination
Correct Answer
C. Hibernation
Explanation Hibernation takes longer to resume computing from compared to standby and sleep. In hibernation mode, the computer saves the current state and shuts down completely, while still preserving the open documents and programs. When the computer is powered on again, it restores the saved state, which takes some time. Standby and sleep modes, on the other hand, keep the computer in a low-power state where it can quickly resume computing with minimal delay.
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44.
What is the initial inventory of the system and a quick hardware diagnostic called?
Correct Answer POST post
Explanation The initial inventory of the system refers to the stock or quantity of items that are available in the system when it is first set up or initialized. A quick hardware diagnostic, on the other hand, is called POST (Power-On Self Test). It is a built-in program in the computer's firmware that checks the hardware components during the startup process to ensure they are functioning properly.
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45.
What is the acronym MBR?
Correct Answer master boot record Master Boot Record
Explanation The acronym MBR stands for master boot record. The master boot record is a small section of a computer's hard drive that contains information about the drive's partitions and the operating system that is installed on it. It is located in the first sector of the hard drive and is responsible for loading the operating system into memory during the boot process. The MBR also contains the partition table, which defines the size and location of each partition on the drive.
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46.
What style of RAID is built into Windows, does not require special hardware and gives a lower performance?
A.
RAID 0
B.
Software
C.
Hardware
D.
There is no such RAID
Correct Answer
B. Software
Explanation The correct answer is "Software". Windows has a built-in software RAID feature that allows users to create and manage RAID arrays without the need for special hardware. However, software RAID typically offers lower performance compared to hardware RAID, as it relies on the computer's CPU and memory resources for processing the RAID operations.
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47.
What is a "Redundate Array of Inexpensive Disks" more commonly known as?
A.
RINGS
B.
RAID
C.
RAIN
D.
Better call the exterminator
Correct Answer
B. RAID
Explanation A "Redundate Array of Inexpensive Disks" is commonly known as RAID. RAID is a technology that combines multiple physical disk drives into a single logical unit to improve data performance, reliability, and storage capacity. It provides redundancy and fault tolerance by distributing data across multiple disks, allowing for data recovery in case of disk failure. RAID is widely used in servers, storage systems, and other high-performance computing environments.
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48.
What level of RAID is stripping?
A.
RAID 5
B.
RAID 3
C.
RAID 0
D.
RAID 1
Correct Answer
C. RAID 0
Explanation RAID 0 is the level of RAID that is striping. In RAID 0, data is striped across multiple drives, dividing it into blocks and distributing them evenly. This improves performance as data can be read and written simultaneously from multiple drives. However, RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance, as there is no redundancy. If one drive fails, all the data on that drive is lost. Therefore, RAID 0 is primarily used for applications that require high performance and do not require data redundancy or fault tolerance.
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49.
What level of RAID is mirroring?
A.
RAID 0
B.
RAID 5
C.
RAID 1
D.
RAID 2
Correct Answer
C. RAID 1
Explanation RAID 1 is the level of RAID that involves mirroring. In RAID 1, data is duplicated across multiple drives, creating an exact copy or mirror of the data. This provides redundancy and improves data availability, as if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the mirrored drive. RAID 1 is commonly used for critical applications that require high levels of data protection and availability.
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50.
What RAID level is mirrored with parity so that if one drive fails the data can be rebuilt?
A.
RAID 0
B.
RAID 1
C.
RAID 3
D.
RAID 5
E.
No such RAID exists
Correct Answer
D. RAID 5
Explanation RAID 5 is the correct answer because it uses both striping and parity. In RAID 5, data is striped across multiple drives and parity information is also distributed across the drives. This means that if one drive fails, the data can be rebuilt using the parity information from the remaining drives. RAID 0 does not have any redundancy, RAID 1 is a simple mirroring without parity, RAID 3 uses dedicated parity drive, and no such RAID level exists is not a valid option.
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