Surg Tech:Appleton And Lang:Q1-250
LeRETEST FOR SURG TEST ALL MISSED QUESTIONS
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Adnexa refers to:
- A.
Adrenal Glands
- B.
Sympathetic Nerve Fibers
- C.
Outer Most Layer
- D.
Accessory Organs
Correct Answer
D. Accessory OrgansExplanation
Adnexa refers to the accessory organs. The term is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the structures or organs that are closely associated with a main organ or system but are not an integral part of it. In this context, the adrenal glands and sympathetic nerve fibers are not considered accessory organs, while the outermost layer is not specifically mentioned as being adnexa. Therefore, the correct answer is "Accessory Organs."Rate this question:
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- 2.
Ischemic can be defined as:
- A.
A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ.
- B.
A sharp osterior bony projection of the pelvis.
- C.
A painful sensation.
- D.
The transmission of pain impulses to the hip bone.
Correct Answer
A. A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ.Explanation
Ischemic is defined as a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ. This explanation accurately describes the term and its meaning. It indicates that ischemic refers to a condition where there is a reduced flow of oxygenated blood to a specific body part or organ, which can lead to tissue damage and other complications.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?
- A.
PET
- B.
CT
- C.
MRI
- D.
Ultrasound
Correct Answer
C. MRIExplanation
MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging. It is a radiographic procedure that uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to generate detailed images of the body's internal structures. Unlike other imaging techniques, MRI has the ability to produce images in multiple planes, allowing for a more comprehensive and detailed view of the anatomy. This is achieved by manipulating the magnetic field and radio waves to obtain images in different orientations. Therefore, MRI is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Blood gas analysis is called:
- A.
BGA
- B.
SAT rate
- C.
ABG
- D.
ABO
Correct Answer
C. ABGExplanation
Blood gas analysis is commonly referred to as ABG, which stands for arterial blood gas analysis. This test measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, as well as the pH and bicarbonate levels. It is used to assess respiratory and metabolic function and diagnose conditions such as respiratory failure, acid-base imbalances, and electrolyte disorders. ABG is an important tool in critical care settings and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient treatment and management.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the:
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Larynx
- C.
Epiglottis
- D.
Pharynx
Correct Answer
D. pHarynxExplanation
The pharynx is the correct answer because it serves as a common passageway for both food and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system. It is located behind the mouth and nasal cavity and leads to both the esophagus and the trachea.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The absence of a normal body opening, duct or canal is called:
- A.
Atrophia
- B.
Atrichia
- C.
Ataxia
- D.
Atresia
Correct Answer
D. AtresiaExplanation
Atresia refers to the absence or abnormal closure of a body opening, duct, or canal. This condition can occur in various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, reproductive system, or ear. It can be congenital or acquired, and it may cause obstruction or blockage of the affected area. Atresia is different from other options provided: Atrophia refers to wasting or degeneration of tissues, Atrichia refers to the absence of hair, and Ataxia refers to lack of muscle coordination.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as:
- A.
Phalanges
- B.
Carpals
- C.
Metacarpals
- D.
Calcaneus
Correct Answer
C. MetacarpalsExplanation
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as metacarpals. The metacarpals are the long bones that connect the wrist bones (carpals) to the bones of the fingers (phalanges). They form the framework of the palm and provide stability and support for the hand. The metacarpals also play a crucial role in the movement and flexibility of the hand, allowing for various hand functions such as grasping and manipulating objects. The term "metacarpals" is commonly used in anatomy to specifically describe these bones in the palm.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:
- A.
Biceps Brachii
- B.
Deltoid
- C.
Triceps Brachii
- D.
Serratus Anterior
Correct Answer
B. DeltoidExplanation
The deltoid muscle is the triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm. It is located on the outer side of the shoulder and is responsible for lifting the arm away from the body. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii are muscles located in the upper arm and are responsible for flexing and extending the forearm, respectively. The serratus anterior is a muscle located on the side of the chest and is responsible for protracting the scapula.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?
- A.
Rectus Abdominis
- B.
Transversus Abdominis
- C.
External Oblique
- D.
Ititernal Oblique
Correct Answer
A. Rectus AbdominisExplanation
The rectus abdominis is the abdominal muscle that originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs. It is a long, flat muscle that runs vertically down the front of the abdomen. Its main function is to flex the trunk, bringing the ribcage closer to the pelvis. It also helps to stabilize the pelvis during movements such as walking or running. The transversus abdominis, external oblique, and internal oblique muscles are also abdominal muscles, but they do not originate at the pubic bone and end in the ribs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
- A.
7
- B.
12
- C.
5
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 7Explanation
There are 7 cervical vertebrae in the human body. The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck region and are numbered C1 to C7. These vertebrae provide support and flexibility to the neck, allowing for movement and protecting the spinal cord.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The number of pairs of ribs is:
- A.
12
- B.
10
- C.
8
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 12 -
- 12.
The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the:
- A.
Humerus
- B.
Talus
- C.
Fibula
- D.
Tibia
Correct Answer
D. TibiaExplanation
The tibia is the larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. It is located on the inner side of the leg and is responsible for supporting the body's weight and transmitting it to the foot. The tibia is essential for stability and movement, as it connects the knee joint to the ankle joint. It is commonly referred to as the shinbone and plays a crucial role in walking, running, and other weight-bearing activities.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The membrane that line closed cavities within the body are called:
- A.
Mucous
- B.
Serous
- C.
Fascial
- D.
Skeletal
Correct Answer
B. SerousExplanation
Serous membranes are thin, double-layered membranes that line closed cavities within the body. They secrete a watery fluid called serous fluid, which helps to reduce friction between organs and allows them to move smoothly. These membranes are found in various body cavities such as the pleural cavity, pericardial cavity, and peritoneal cavity. Mucous membranes, on the other hand, line the body's surfaces that are in contact with the external environment, such as the respiratory and digestive tracts. Fascial membranes are connective tissues that surround and support organs, while skeletal membranes refer to the connective tissues that cover bones.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The epiphyses:
- A.
Ends of long bones
- B.
Shafts of long bones
- C.
Bone-forming cells
- D.
Marrow-filled cavities within bone
Correct Answer
A. Ends of long bonesExplanation
The epiphyses refer to the ends of long bones. These are the parts of the bones that are responsible for the growth and development of the bone. They contain specialized cells called osteoblasts, which are responsible for bone formation. The epiphyses also contain red marrow, which is responsible for the production of blood cells. The ends of long bones are important for providing stability and support to the skeletal system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Oil glands of the skin are called:
- A.
Sudoriferous
- B.
Ceruminous
- C.
Sebaceous
- D.
Hypochlorous
Correct Answer
C. SebaceousExplanation
Sebaceous glands are the oil glands of the skin. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin. Sebum also helps to keep the skin moisturized and protect it from external factors such as bacteria and fungi. Sebaceous glands are found all over the body, except for the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. They are particularly abundant on the face, scalp, and upper back.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The periosteum is:
- A.
The membrane that covers bone
- B.
The membrane that surrounds a joint
- C.
The covering of the internal and external organs of the body and the lining of vessels
- D.
A fibrous connective tissue sheath
Correct Answer
A. The membrane that covers boneExplanation
The periosteum is a fibrous connective tissue sheath that covers the surface of bones. It serves as a protective layer and is responsible for providing nutrients and oxygen to the bone cells. The periosteum also plays a role in bone repair and growth.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The white outer layer of the eyeball is the:
- A.
Conjunctiva
- B.
Sclera
- C.
Choroid
- D.
Retina
Correct Answer
B. ScleraExplanation
The white outer layer of the eyeball is called the sclera. The sclera is a tough, fibrous tissue that covers most of the eyeball and provides protection and support to the delicate structures within the eye. It is the visible part of the eyeball that gives the eye its white color. The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent membrane that covers the sclera and the inner surface of the eyelids. The choroid is a layer of blood vessels that nourishes the retina, which is the innermost layer of the eye responsible for detecting light and sending visual signals to the brain.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:
- A.
Trochlear
- B.
Oculomotor
- C.
Hypoglossal
- D.
Trigeminal
Correct Answer
D. TrigeminalExplanation
The trigeminal nerve is the great sensory nerve of the face and head. It is responsible for transmitting sensations such as touch, pain, and temperature from the face to the brain. It also controls the muscles involved in chewing. The other options, trochlear, oculomotor, and hypoglossal, are all cranial nerves that have different functions and do not primarily serve as sensory nerves for the face and head.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is:
- A.
II
- B.
V
- C.
VIII
- D.
XII
Correct Answer
C. VIIIExplanation
The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is the VIII cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the inner ear to the brain, allowing us to perceive sounds and maintain our balance and spatial orientation. It consists of two branches, the cochlear branch for hearing and the vestibular branch for balance.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The part of the body responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the:
- A.
Cerebellum
- B.
Cerebrum
- C.
Midbrain
- D.
Pons
Correct Answer
A. CerebellumExplanation
The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance, muscle tone, and coordinating voluntary muscle movements. It receives information from various sensory systems and integrates it to provide smooth and coordinated movements. It also plays a role in motor learning and fine-tuning movements. The cerebrum, on the other hand, is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and perception. The midbrain and pons are parts of the brainstem that are involved in relaying sensory information and regulating basic bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the:
- A.
Cerebellum
- B.
Interbrain
- C.
Pons
- D.
Medulla Oblongata
Correct Answer
D. Medulla OblongataExplanation
The medulla oblongata is responsible for controlling the respiratory center in the brain. It is located at the base of the brainstem and plays a vital role in regulating essential functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The medulla oblongata receives signals from the respiratory muscles and adjusts the rate and depth of breathing accordingly. It also helps in coordinating the muscles involved in respiration, ensuring the proper exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:
- A.
Subarachnoid space
- B.
Arachnoid space
- C.
Pia mater
- D.
Subdural space
Correct Answer
A. Subarachnoid spaceExplanation
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulates throughout the central nervous system. The subarachnoid space is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, which are two of the layers that make up the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. CSF flows freely within the subarachnoid space, providing cushioning and support to the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is the subarachnoid space.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:
- A.
Auricles
- B.
Ventricles
- C.
Fissures
- D.
Sulci
Correct Answer
B. VentriclesExplanation
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called ventricles. These ventricles are interconnected and play a crucial role in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid, which helps protect and support the brain. The ventricles also contribute to the maintenance of brain homeostasis by providing nutrients and removing waste products.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following structures transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear?
- A.
Exteranl auditory canal
- B.
Tympanic membrane
- C.
Semicircular canal
- D.
Stapes
Correct Answer
B. Tympanic membraneExplanation
The tympanic membrane, also known as the eardrum, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear, they cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate. These vibrations are then transmitted to the middle ear, where they are amplified and conducted to the inner ear. The inner ear is responsible for converting these vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain as sound. Therefore, the correct answer is the tympanic membrane.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:
- A.
Vestibule
- B.
Sesmicircular canal
- C.
Labyrinth
- D.
Cochlea
Correct Answer
D. CochleaExplanation
The cochlea is the correct answer because it is a winding, cone-shaped tube located in the inner ear. It is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The cochlea contains thousands of tiny hair cells that detect different frequencies of sound and send signals to the auditory nerve.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Cross-matching of blood:
- A.
Determines patient's blood type
- B.
Determines Rh factor of both patient and donor
- C.
Deteremines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC's with recipient serum
- D.
Determines blood group of donor
Correct Answer
C. Deteremines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC's with recipient serumExplanation
Cross-matching of blood is a process used to determine the compatibility between a potential blood donor and a recipient. It involves mixing the donor's red blood cells (RBCs) with the recipient's serum. If the recipient's antibodies react with the donor's RBCs, it indicates an incompatible match, which could lead to a transfusion reaction. Therefore, this process determines the suitability of the donor by assessing whether the recipient's serum will react with the donor's RBCs, ensuring a safe and compatible blood transfusion.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A defferential count provides an estimate of:
- A.
The amount of hemoglobin
- B.
The volume percentage of red cells
- C.
The percentage of each type of white cell
- D.
Electrolyte percentages
Correct Answer
C. The percentage of each type of white cellExplanation
A differential count provides an estimate of the percentage of each type of white cell in the blood. This count is used to identify and diagnose various types of infections, diseases, and disorders. By analyzing the proportions of different types of white blood cells, healthcare professionals can gather important information about the immune system and overall health of an individual.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in:
- A.
Agglutination
- B.
Infectious Hepatitis
- C.
Leukocytosis
- D.
Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer
A. AgglutinationExplanation
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in agglutination. Agglutination refers to the clumping together of red blood cells due to the reaction between antibodies and antigens on the surface of the cells. When incompatible blood types are mixed, the antibodies in the recipient's blood react with the antigens on the donor's red blood cells, causing them to clump together. This can lead to serious complications such as organ damage, blood clots, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to match blood types properly before any blood transfusion to prevent agglutination and its associated risks.Rate this question:
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- 29.
In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is:
- A.
1,000-4,000
- B.
3,000-8,000
- C.
5,000-10,000
- D.
10,000
Correct Answer
C. 5,000-10,000Explanation
The normal adult has an average number of leukocytes, or white blood cells, per cubic millimeter of circulating blood ranging from 5,000 to 10,000. Leukocytes play a crucial role in the immune system, defending the body against infections and diseases. This range is considered normal and indicates a healthy immune response.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A large superficial vein in the lower extremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the:
- A.
Femoral
- B.
Greater saphenous
- C.
Iliac
- D.
Popliteal
Correct Answer
B. Greater sapHenousExplanation
The greater saphenous vein is a large superficial vein that starts in the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg, knee, and thigh. It is commonly used for procedures such as vein harvesting for coronary artery bypass grafting. The femoral vein is a deep vein located in the thigh, the iliac vein is a deep vein located in the pelvis, and the popliteal vein is a deep vein located behind the knee.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the:
- A.
Azygos
- B.
Hepatic
- C.
Cephalic
- D.
Basilic
Correct Answer
A. AzygosExplanation
The correct answer is Azygos. The azygos vein is responsible for draining the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava. It is a major vein in the body that plays a crucial role in returning deoxygenated blood from the chest and abdominal walls back to the heart. The azygos vein is located on the right side of the body and is an important component of the venous drainage system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into:
- A.
Two saphenous arteries
- B.
Two femoral arteries
- C.
Internal and external iliac arteries
- D.
Two common iliac arteries
Correct Answer
D. Two common iliac arteriesExplanation
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra and divides into two common iliac arteries. These arteries further branch into internal and external iliac arteries. The internal iliac arteries supply blood to the pelvic organs, while the external iliac arteries continue down the legs and become the femoral arteries. The saphenous arteries are not directly related to the termination of the descending aorta.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart called:
- A.
Sinoatrial node
- B.
Atrioventricular node
- C.
Atrioventricular bundle
- D.
Purkinje fibers
Correct Answer
A. Sinoatrial nodeExplanation
The pacemaker of the heart that synchronizes and regulates the contractions is called the sinoatrial node. It is located in the right atrium and generates electrical impulses that initiate the heartbeat. These impulses spread throughout the atria, causing them to contract, and then reach the atrioventricular node, which delays the signal before transmitting it to the ventricles. The atrioventricular bundle and Purkinje fibers then distribute the electrical impulses to the ventricular muscles, causing them to contract as well. However, the main pacemaker responsible for initiating the heartbeat is the sinoatrial node.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The heart valve that closes at the time of the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is:
- A.
Aortic semilumar
- B.
Pulmonary Semilunar
- C.
Bicuspid
- D.
Tricuspid
Correct Answer
D. TricuspidExplanation
The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle in the heart. It closes when the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from flowing back into the right atrium. This ensures that the blood moves forward through the pulmonary artery to the lungs for oxygenation, rather than circulating back through the heart.Rate this question:
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- 35.
All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the:
- A.
Thyroid
- B.
Tonsils
- C.
Spleen
- D.
Thymus
Correct Answer
A. ThyroidExplanation
The lymphatic system is a network of vessels, organs, and tissues that help to remove waste, toxins, and excess fluid from the body. It also plays a crucial role in the immune system by producing and storing white blood cells. The thyroid, on the other hand, is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck that produces hormones regulating metabolism. While the tonsils, spleen, and thymus are all part of the lymphatic system, the thyroid is not. Therefore, the correct answer is the thyroid.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the:
- A.
Sigmoid
- B.
Rectum
- C.
Anus
- D.
Anal canal
Correct Answer
D. Anal canalExplanation
The anal canal is the terminal portion of the large intestine. It is the last part of the digestive system and is responsible for the elimination of waste material from the body. It is located between the rectum and the anus. The anal canal contains internal and external sphincters that help control the release of feces.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The appendix is attached to the:
- A.
Ascending colon
- B.
Transverse colon
- C.
Cecum
- D.
Descending colon
Correct Answer
C. CecumExplanation
The appendix is a small, finger-shaped pouch located at the beginning of the large intestine. It is attached to the cecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. The cecum acts as a storage pouch for waste material before it moves into the colon for further digestion and absorption. The appendix is a vestigial organ and its exact function is still not completely understood, but it is believed to play a role in the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?
- A.
Cholesterol
- B.
Bile salts
- C.
Enzymes
- D.
Bilirubin
Correct Answer
D. BilirubinExplanation
Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellow tinge in the skin. This discoloration is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood and tissues. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. In obstructive jaundice, the flow of bile from the liver is blocked, leading to the buildup of bilirubin. This excess bilirubin then gets deposited in the skin, causing the characteristic yellow color.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The head of the pancreas is located:
- A.
In the curve of the duodenum
- B.
By the spleen
- C.
On the undersurface of the liver
- D.
In the curve of the descending colon
Correct Answer
A. In the curve of the duodenumExplanation
The head of the pancreas is located in the curve of the duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and it forms a C-shaped curve around the head of the pancreas. This anatomical relationship is important because it allows for the close proximity of the pancreas to the digestive system, facilitating the secretion of pancreatic enzymes into the duodenum to aid in digestion. The location of the pancreas in the curve of the duodenum also allows for easy access during surgical procedures if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the:
- A.
Sphincter of Oddi
- B.
Ileocecal sphincter
- C.
Pyloric sphincter
- D.
Duodenal sphincter
Correct Answer
B. Ileocecal spHincterExplanation
The correct answer is the Ileocecal sphincter. This sphincter is located at the junction between the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (cecum). It acts as a valve, regulating the flow of digested food from the small intestine into the large intestine. When the sphincter is relaxed, it allows food to pass through, but when it contracts, it prevents backflow of waste material from the large intestine into the small intestine.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the:
- A.
Hiatus
- B.
Meatus
- C.
Sphincter
- D.
Fundus
Correct Answer
A. HiatusExplanation
The correct answer is "Hiatus." The hiatus refers to the point where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm. It is a small opening that allows the esophagus to connect with the stomach. This anatomical structure is important for the passage of food and liquids from the throat to the stomach. The other options, Meatus, Sphincter, and Fundus, do not accurately describe the point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called:
- A.
Glomeruli
- B.
Convoluted tubules
- C.
Bowman's capsules
- D.
Calyces
Correct Answer
D. CalycesExplanation
The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called calyces. Calyces are responsible for collecting urine from the renal pelvis and transporting it to the ureter for elimination from the body. They serve as a connection between the renal pelvis and the renal tubules, allowing for the filtration and concentration of urine.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the:
- A.
Prostatic
- B.
Cavernous
- C.
Membranous
- D.
Penile
Correct Answer
C. MembranousExplanation
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the membranous urethra. This segment is located between the prostatic urethra, which is surrounded by the prostate gland, and the penile urethra, which extends through the penis. The membranous urethra is a short, narrow section that is susceptible to injury due to its location within the pelvic floor muscles.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the:
- A.
Inguinal canal
- B.
Cremaster muscle
- C.
Vas deferens
- D.
Spermatic cord
Correct Answer
D. Spermatic cordExplanation
The spermatic cord is the correct answer because it is the main supporting structure of the male reproductive system. It is a bundle of fibers and tissues that contains the vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and other structures that are essential for the transport of sperm and the overall functioning of the male reproductive system. The spermatic cord also helps to suspend and protect the testes within the scrotum.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The long, coiled tube in which sperm mature is the:
- A.
Vas deferens
- B.
Epididymis
- C.
Ejaculatory duct
- D.
Seminal Vesicle
Correct Answer
B. EpididymisExplanation
The correct answer is Epididymis. The epididymis is a long, coiled tube located on the back of each testicle where sperm mature and gain the ability to swim. It is responsible for storing and transporting sperm from the testes to the vas deferens. The vas deferens, on the other hand, is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct is a short tube that connects the vas deferens to the urethra. The seminal vesicle is a gland that produces a fluid that nourishes and helps transport sperm.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by:
- A.
Urine
- B.
Feces
- C.
Nose and mouth
- D.
Sex organs
Correct Answer
C. Nose and mouthExplanation
Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium commonly found in the nose and mouth of humans. It is easily transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. This bacterium can also be spread through direct contact with infected nasal secretions or saliva. Therefore, the most likely mode of transmission for Staphylococcus aureus is through the nose and mouth.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Microbial death occurs when an organism is:
- A.
Reproducing at a slower rate
- B.
Reproduced in population
- C.
No longer capable of reproduction
- D.
Exposed to heat
Correct Answer
C. No longer capable of reproductionExplanation
Microbial death occurs when an organism is no longer capable of reproduction. This means that the organism has lost its ability to produce offspring or replicate itself, leading to the end of its life cycle. This can happen due to various factors such as damage to essential cellular components, depletion of necessary nutrients, exposure to harmful substances, or other adverse conditions that prevent the organism from carrying out its reproductive processes. Once an organism loses its ability to reproduce, it is considered dead.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What immune protection is available to the fetus?
- A.
Natural active
- B.
Natural passive
- C.
Active artificial
- D.
Passive artificial
Correct Answer
B. Natural passiveExplanation
During pregnancy, the fetus receives immune protection from the mother through the placenta. This is known as natural passive immunity. The mother's antibodies are transferred to the fetus, providing temporary protection against various infections. This type of immunity is important for the fetus as its own immune system is not fully developed. Once the baby is born, this passive immunity gradually decreases, and the baby starts developing its own active immune response. Therefore, natural passive immunity is the correct answer as it describes the immune protection available to the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Clostridium tetani causes:
- A.
Gangrene
- B.
Nosocomial infection
- C.
Lockjaw
- D.
Malaria
Correct Answer
C. LockjawExplanation
Clostridium tetani is a bacterium that causes lockjaw, also known as tetanus. Lockjaw is a condition characterized by severe muscle stiffness and spasms, particularly in the jaw and neck muscles. It is caused by the release of a toxin produced by the bacterium, which affects the nervous system. Other symptoms of tetanus may include difficulty swallowing, muscle rigidity, fever, and sweating. Without proper treatment, tetanus can be life-threatening. Gangrene is caused by a different bacterium, and nosocomial infection refers to infections acquired in healthcare settings. Malaria is caused by a parasite transmitted through mosquito bites.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The organism most frequently found in burns:
- A.
Clostridium Perfingens
- B.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- C.
Clostridium tetani
- D.
Hemolytic streptococci
Correct Answer
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosaExplanation
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the correct answer because it is a common bacteria found in burn wounds. It is known for its ability to thrive in moist environments and can cause serious infections in burn patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat. It produces toxins that can further damage the tissues and delay wound healing. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat this organism promptly in burn patients to prevent complications and improve outcomes.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 17, 2011Quiz Created by
HN_NUNLEY
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