Take Home Quiz Chapter 13

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1. Which of the following types of infections would be classified as an UTI?

Explanation

A urinary tract infection (UTI) refers to an infection that occurs in any part of the urinary system, which includes the bladder, kidneys, ureters, and urethra. The bladder is a specific part of the urinary system, responsible for storing urine before it is eliminated from the body. Therefore, a bladder infection is classified as a UTI. In contrast, the lung, nasal, and throat infections mentioned in the options do not involve the urinary system and are unrelated to UTIs.

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About This Quiz
Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Take home quiz chapter 13' assesses knowledge on microbiology, focusing on antibiotic susceptibility, pathogens like Clostridium difficile, and specimen collection methods. It is crucial for understanding infection control and effective treatment in medical settings.

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2. Suspected pregnancy is typically confirmed by testing urine for the presence of:

Explanation

HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. Testing urine for the presence of HCG is a common method to confirm suspected pregnancy. HCG levels increase rapidly in the early stages of pregnancy and can be detected in urine as early as 10 days after conception. This hormone is not typically present in non-pregnant individuals, making it a reliable indicator of pregnancy. Therefore, testing urine for the presence of HCG is a reliable method to confirm suspected pregnancy.

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3. This fluid comes from the male reproductive system.

Explanation

Seminal fluid is the correct answer because it is a fluid that is produced in the male reproductive system. It is a mixture of sperm and various secretions from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands. Seminal fluid plays a crucial role in nourishing and transporting sperm during ejaculation.

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4. Which of the following can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion?

Explanation

If urine specimens are not processed in a timely fashion, several changes can occur. The breakdown of bilirubin can occur, which may lead to a change in color of the urine. Decomposition of cells can also occur, which may result in the release of cellular components into the urine. Additionally, if the specimens are not processed promptly, there is a higher chance of overgrowth of bacteria, which can affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, all of the given options can occur in urine specimens that are not processed in a timely fashion.

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5. What type of specimen is collected during a biopsy?

Explanation

During a biopsy, a small sample of tissue is collected from the body for examination under a microscope. This allows doctors to diagnose diseases or conditions such as cancer. Blood, stool, and sweat are not collected during a biopsy as they do not provide the necessary information about the specific area being examined.

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6. What special information in addition to routine identification information is required in labeling a non-blood specimen?

Explanation

In addition to routine identification information, labeling a non-blood specimen requires the inclusion of the type and source of the specimen. This information is important for proper identification and tracking of the specimen throughout the testing process. It helps ensure that the correct tests are performed and that the results are accurately interpreted.

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7. A minimally invasive way of obtaining cells for dna analysis is to collect a:

Explanation

A buccal swab is a minimally invasive way of obtaining cells for DNA analysis. It involves using a small brush or swab to collect cells from the inside of the cheek. This method is non-invasive, painless, and can provide a sufficient amount of DNA for analysis. Breath samples may not contain enough DNA or may be contaminated with environmental factors. Stool samples may contain a mixture of DNA from different sources and may not be as reliable. Throat swabs may also be invasive and may not provide enough DNA for analysis. Therefore, the most suitable option for minimally invasive DNA analysis is a buccal swab.

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8. CSF is the abbreviation for fluid that comes from the:

Explanation

CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid, which is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulates throughout the central nervous system, providing cushioning and protection to the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is "Spinal cavity" because CSF comes from the spinal cavity.

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9. A test that identifies bacteria and the antibiotics that can be used against them is the:

Explanation

The C&S test, also known as the Culture and Sensitivity test, is used to identify bacteria and determine the antibiotics that can effectively treat them. This test involves taking a sample of the bacteria and growing it in a laboratory culture. The cultured bacteria are then exposed to various antibiotics to see which ones are most effective in inhibiting their growth. The results of the C&S test help healthcare professionals select the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for bacterial infections.

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10. Fluid aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart is called:

Explanation

Pericardial fluid is the correct answer because it is the fluid that is aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart. The pericardial sac acts as a protective layer around the heart, and the fluid within it helps to reduce friction and provide lubrication for the movement of the heart. Aspirating this fluid can be done for diagnostic purposes or to relieve excess fluid buildup in conditions like pericarditis or pericardial effusion. Amniotic fluid is the fluid that surrounds the fetus in the amniotic sac during pregnancy. Peritoneal fluid is found in the peritoneal cavity, and synovial fluid is found in joint cavities.

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11. ROutine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require:

Explanation

Routine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours require refrigeration. This is because refrigeration helps to slow down the degradation of the specimen and preserve its integrity for a longer period of time. By keeping the specimen at a lower temperature, the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms is inhibited, preventing any potential changes in the composition of the urine. Refrigeration also helps to maintain the physical and chemical properties of the specimen, ensuring accurate analysis when it is eventually tested. Therefore, refrigeration is necessary to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the urinalysis results.

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12. Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require:

Explanation

Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require collection in a sterile container because it helps to ensure that the sample is not contaminated with any external bacteria or substances. A sterile container reduces the risk of false-positive or false-negative results by maintaining the integrity of the specimen. It also helps to accurately diagnose any potential urinary tract infections or other urinary system disorders.

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13. Amniotic fluid comes from the:

Explanation

Amniotic fluid comes from the sac containing a fetus in the womb. This fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is essential for the development and protection of the fetus. It helps cushion the fetus from external pressure, maintains a constant temperature, allows movement and growth, and provides a sterile environment. The amniotic sac acts as a protective barrier and contains the amniotic fluid, which surrounds and supports the fetus throughout pregnancy.

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14. This test can be used to evaulate stomach acid production.

Explanation

Gastric analysis is a test that can be used to evaluate stomach acid production. This test involves collecting and analyzing samples of stomach fluid to determine the levels of acid present. It can help diagnose conditions such as gastritis, gastric ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. By measuring the acid levels, gastric analysis can provide valuable information about the functioning of the stomach and help guide appropriate treatment plans for patients.

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15. Semen analysis can be performed to:

Explanation

Semen analysis is a test that examines the quality and quantity of sperm in a man's semen. It is commonly used to evaluate fertility status by assessing various parameters such as sperm count, motility, and morphology. By analyzing these factors, doctors can determine if a man has any fertility issues that may be affecting his ability to conceive a child. The other options mentioned in the question, such as detecting bladder infection, identifying cancerous cells, or monitoring prostate growth, are not directly related to semen analysis and are not the primary purposes of this test.

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16. A urine C&S is typically ordered to:

Explanation

A urine C&S (Culture and Sensitivity) test is typically ordered to diagnose urinary tract infections (UTIs). This test involves culturing a urine sample to identify the presence of bacteria or other pathogens that may be causing the infection. It also helps determine the most effective antibiotic treatment by performing sensitivity testing on the isolated bacteria. Monitoring urinary protein levels, evaluating kidney function, and checking for glucose in the urine are different tests that serve different purposes and are not directly related to a urine C&S test.

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17. Which of the following fluids is obtained through lumbar puncture?

Explanation

Spinal fluid is obtained through a procedure called lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap. During this procedure, a needle is inserted into the lower back, into the spinal canal, to collect a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and nutrients. Lumbar puncture is commonly done to diagnose various conditions affecting the central nervous system, such as infections, bleeding, or certain neurological disorders. It can also be used to measure CSF pressure or administer medications directly into the spinal canal.

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18. The most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen is:

Explanation

Urine is the most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen because it provides valuable information about the body's metabolic and excretory functions. It can be easily collected and contains various substances that can indicate the presence of diseases or abnormalities, such as glucose, proteins, and metabolites. Urine analysis is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and monitor drug usage. Additionally, urine can be tested for pregnancy hormones, drugs of abuse, and other toxic substances. Therefore, urine is the preferred non-blood specimen for routine diagnostic testing.

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19. Tests commonly performed on CSF include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above" because cell counts, glucose, and total protein are all commonly tested in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis. Cell counts are performed to determine the presence and quantity of different types of cells, such as red blood cells or white blood cells, which can indicate various conditions or infections. Glucose levels in CSF are measured to assess the brain's energy metabolism and can be altered in certain diseases. Total protein levels are measured to evaluate inflammation, infections, or other abnormalities in the central nervous system. Therefore, all these tests are routinely conducted on CSF samples.

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20. Fluid from joint cavities is called:

Explanation

Synovial fluid is the correct answer because it is the fluid found in joint cavities. It acts as a lubricant and shock absorber, reducing friction between the bones and allowing smooth movement of the joints. Pericardial fluid is found in the pericardial cavity surrounding the heart, peritoneal fluid is found in the peritoneal cavity in the abdomen, and pleural fluid is found in the pleural cavity surrounding the lungs. None of these fluids are specifically related to joint cavities.

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21. Which of the following midstream urine collection steps are in the proper order?

Explanation

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22. A term used to describe blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye is:

Explanation

Occult is the correct answer because it refers to blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe small amounts of blood in the stool or urine that are not visible but can be detected through laboratory tests. Guaiac is a test used to detect hidden blood in the stool, while micro and serous do not specifically relate to blood visibility.

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23. Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated?

Explanation

The first morning urine specimen is normally the most concentrated because it has been in the bladder for a longer period of time, allowing for the accumulation of waste products. This specimen is usually collected after a night of sleep, during which the body has had time to concentrate the urine due to reduced fluid intake and increased reabsorption of water by the kidneys. In contrast, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected over a longer period of time and may be more diluted, while a random or timed specimen can vary in concentration depending on recent fluid intake.

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24. A type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining is:

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining. It is known to cause various gastrointestinal diseases, including gastritis and peptic ulcers. This bacterium is able to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and can weaken the protective mucus layer, allowing it to damage the stomach lining. Helicobacter pylori is also associated with an increased risk of developing stomach cancer.

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25. A semen specimen is unlikely to be accepted for testing if it is:

Explanation

A semen specimen collected in a condom is unlikely to be accepted for testing because condoms are typically made of materials that can interfere with the analysis of the specimen. The latex or other materials used in condoms can release substances that may affect the accuracy of the test results or even cause damage to the sperm cells. Therefore, it is recommended to collect semen specimens in sterile containers specifically designed for this purpose to ensure the integrity of the sample and obtain reliable test results.

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26. Urine cytology studies look for the presence of:

Explanation

Urine cytology studies are a diagnostic test used to examine urine samples for the presence of abnormal cells. This can help in the detection and diagnosis of various conditions, such as urinary tract infections, bladder cancer, or kidney disease. The test involves examining the cells under a microscope to identify any abnormalities, such as changes in size, shape, or structure. It is not used to detect heavy metals, illegal drugs, or microbe toxins, as these require different testing methods.

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27. Synovial fluid can be tested to identify:

Explanation

Synovial fluid can be tested to identify arthritis and gout because these conditions often cause inflammation in the joints, leading to an increased production of synovial fluid. By analyzing the composition of the fluid, doctors can determine if the patient has arthritis or gout, which helps in diagnosing and treating the respective conditions.

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28. A catheterized urine specimen is collected:

Explanation

The correct answer is "From a sterile tube passed through the urethra into the bladder." This answer suggests that a catheterized urine specimen is collected by inserting a sterile tube through the urethra and into the bladder. This method allows for direct access to the bladder and ensures that the urine sample is collected in a sterile manner. Other options mentioned in the question, such as stimulating urine production with intravenous histamine or using a sterile syringe inserted into the bladder, are not typically associated with catheterized urine specimen collection.

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29. CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of:

Explanation

CSF analysis, or cerebrospinal fluid analysis, is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is primarily used in the diagnosis of meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. By analyzing the CSF, healthcare professionals can determine if there is an infection present, as well as the specific type of infection, allowing for appropriate treatment to be administered. Osteoporosis, pneumonia, and renal failure are not typically diagnosed using CSF analysis.

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30. What type of specimen is required for a "rapid strep" test?

Explanation

A "rapid strep" test is used to detect the presence of streptococcal bacteria in the throat. To perform this test, a throat swab is required. This involves using a cotton swab to collect a sample from the back of the throat, specifically the tonsils and the area surrounding them. The swab is then tested for the presence of streptococcal bacteria, which can cause strep throat. A throat swab is the most appropriate specimen for this type of test as it allows for the detection of the bacteria in the area where it is most likely to be present.

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31. An antibiotic susceptibility test determines which antibiotics:

Explanation

An antibiotic susceptibility test is used to determine which antibiotics are effective against a particular microbe. This test helps healthcare professionals choose the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for an infection, as different microbes may have varying levels of susceptibility to different antibiotics. By identifying the most effective antibiotic, the test helps ensure that the patient receives the most targeted and efficient treatment, minimizing the risk of antibiotic resistance and improving the chances of a successful outcome.

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32. This test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen.

Explanation

The correct answer is UA because the given statement mentions that the test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of the specimen. UA stands for Urinalysis, which is a diagnostic test that examines the urine sample for various substances and abnormalities. This test involves both physical examination (color, odor, clarity) and chemical analysis (pH, specific gravity, presence of glucose, protein, etc.) as well as microscopic examination to detect the presence of cells, bacteria, crystals, or other substances. Therefore, UA is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

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33. Which type of specimen must be handled and analyzed stat?

Explanation

Spinal fluid must be handled and analyzed stat because it is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. It is crucial to analyze spinal fluid quickly in order to diagnose and monitor conditions such as meningitis, encephalitis, and other neurological disorders. The analysis of spinal fluid can provide important information about the presence of infection, inflammation, or bleeding in the central nervous system. Therefore, prompt handling and analysis of spinal fluid is essential for timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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34. Sputum specimens are collected in the diagnosis of:

Explanation

Sputum specimens are collected in the diagnosis of tuberculosis. Sputum, which is the mucus coughed up from the lungs, can contain the bacteria that cause tuberculosis. By analyzing the sputum sample, laboratory tests can detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis infection. This diagnostic method is important in identifying and treating individuals with tuberculosis, as early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease.

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35. A technician collects a specimen from a child's mouse by rubbing a swab on the inside of the cheek, what type of specimen is most likely being collected?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Buccal." When a technician collects a specimen from the inside of a child's cheek by rubbing a swab, it is most likely a buccal specimen. Buccal refers to the inside lining of the cheek, and collecting a sample from this area is a common method for DNA testing or diagnosing certain genetic conditions.

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36. What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?

Explanation

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37. Bone marrow is studied to identify:

Explanation

Bone marrow is studied to identify blood disorders. Bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. By studying the bone marrow, doctors can assess the production and maturation of these cells, as well as detect any abnormalities or diseases affecting the blood cells. This can help in diagnosing conditions such as leukemia, anemia, lymphoma, and other blood disorders.

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38. Pleural fluid is aspirated from the:

Explanation

Pleural fluid is a fluid that surrounds the lungs and helps in their smooth movement during breathing. Aspiration refers to the process of removing fluid or air from a specific area using a needle or a tube. In this case, pleural fluid is aspirated from the lungs, as it is the specific area where this fluid is present. Aspiration of pleural fluid is commonly done for diagnostic purposes, to analyze the fluid for any abnormalities or infections.

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39. A process called iontophoresis is used to collect:

Explanation

Iontophoresis is a process that involves the use of a weak electrical current to transport ions through the skin. It is commonly used to treat excessive sweating or hyperhidrosis. By applying a small electrical current to the skin, iontophoresis can help reduce sweat production in the treated area. Therefore, the correct answer is sweat, as iontophoresis is used to collect and treat excessive sweating.

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40. Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine:

Explanation

Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine after cleaning the genital area. This method is used to obtain a urine sample for testing, as it helps to prevent contamination from bacteria or other substances that may be present on the skin. By cleaning the genital area before collecting the urine, the sample is more likely to be accurate and representative of the individual's urinary tract.

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41. This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose.

Explanation

This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose. The abbreviation "NP" stands for Nasopharyngeal, which refers to the area at the back of the nose and upper part of the throat. Therefore, this type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through the nose to collect samples from the nasopharynx.

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42. What is sputum?

Explanation

Sputum refers to the mucus that is coughed up from the respiratory system. It is commonly associated with respiratory infections or conditions such as bronchitis or pneumonia. Phlegm is a thick, sticky substance that is produced by the lungs and respiratory tract. Therefore, the correct answer is phlegm.

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43. Which urine test requries a midstream clean-catch specimen?

Explanation

A midstream clean-catch specimen is required for a urine culture and sensitivity test. This method involves collecting urine in the middle of the stream after the initial flow, which helps to minimize contamination from the urethra or external genitalia. This type of specimen collection is important for accurate results in identifying and determining the sensitivity of bacteria or other microorganisms present in the urine. It is commonly used to diagnose urinary tract infections and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment.

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44. Which of the following tests is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid?

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid. AFP is a protein produced by the fetus and is found in high levels in the amniotic fluid during pregnancy. This test is commonly used to screen for certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects and Down syndrome. High levels of AFP in the amniotic fluid may indicate a potential problem with the fetus, while low levels may suggest a risk for chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, performing an AFP test on amniotic fluid can provide valuable information about the health and development of the fetus.

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45. This microbe is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

Explanation

Clostridium difficile is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired diarrhea. This bacterium is commonly found in healthcare settings and can cause infections in patients who have been exposed to antibiotics. It produces toxins that damage the lining of the intestines, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Clostridium difficile infections are a significant concern in hospitals and other healthcare facilities, as they can be difficult to treat and can spread easily among patients. Therefore, Clostridium difficile is the correct answer as it is known to be a common cause of hospital-acquired diarrhea.

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46. The guaiac test detects:

Explanation

The guaiac test is a screening test used to detect the presence of occult blood in the stool or other body fluids. Occult blood refers to blood that is not visible to the naked eye. This test is commonly used to screen for gastrointestinal bleeding, such as from ulcers, polyps, or colorectal cancer. It works by detecting the activity of an enzyme called peroxidase, which is found in the heme component of hemoglobin. If the test is positive, it suggests the presence of blood in the sample, indicating a possible underlying condition.

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47. This type of sample is sometimes collected for drug testing because it is not easily tampered with or altered.

Explanation

Hair samples are sometimes collected for drug testing because they are not easily tampered with or altered. Unlike urine samples, which can be diluted or substituted, or buccal swabs, which can be contaminated, hair samples provide a more reliable and accurate representation of an individual's drug use history. Hair samples can detect drug use over a longer period of time, making them a preferred choice for drug testing in certain situations.

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48. Which site is typically used when performing a sweat chloride test on a toddler?

Explanation

The thigh is typically used when performing a sweat chloride test on a toddler. This is because the thigh area provides a larger surface area for collecting sweat, which is necessary for accurate testing. Additionally, the thigh is a less sensitive area compared to the arm or hand, making it more comfortable for the toddler during the procedure. The wrist is not typically used because it may not provide enough sweat for testing purposes.

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49. Which type of urine specimen is best for pregnancy testing?

Explanation

The first voided urine specimen is the best for pregnancy testing because it contains a higher concentration of the pregnancy hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after implantation and its levels are highest in the morning, making the first urine of the day the most ideal for testing. The first voided urine is also less diluted compared to later urine samples, providing a more accurate result.

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50. Which type of sample can be tested to detect chronic drug abuse?

Explanation

Hair samples can be tested to detect chronic drug abuse because drugs can be detected in hair for a longer period of time compared to other samples such as blood, saliva, or urine. When drugs are ingested, they enter the bloodstream and are eventually deposited in the hair follicles as the hair grows. This allows for a longer detection window of drug use, typically up to 90 days or even longer depending on the length of the hair sample. Therefore, hair samples are often preferred for detecting chronic drug abuse.

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51. Which of the following is typically included in a routine UA?

Explanation

A routine UA (urinalysis) typically includes a chemical analysis. This involves testing the urine for various substances such as glucose, protein, blood, and pH levels. This analysis helps in diagnosing and monitoring conditions like urinary tract infections, kidney diseases, and diabetes. C&S (culture and sensitivity) is a separate test used to identify and determine the susceptibility of bacteria causing a urinary tract infection. Cytological analysis involves examining cells under a microscope and is not typically included in a routine UA. Drug screening is also a separate test used to detect the presence of drugs or their metabolites in the urine.

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52. Urine drug screening is unable to:

Explanation

Urine drug screening is a method used to detect the presence of drugs in a person's system. It can be used to identify the use of illegal drugs and monitor therapeutic drug use, as well as detect prescription drug abuse. However, it is not able to specifically identify a deliberate overdose. While an overdose may be detected through the presence of high levels of a drug in the urine, the test itself cannot determine whether the overdose was intentional or accidental. This distinction would require additional information and investigation.

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53. An NP culture swab is sometimes collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause:

Explanation

An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause whooping cough. This is because whooping cough is primarily caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, which can be detected through a culture swab of the nasopharynx (NP). The swab is used to collect a sample from the back of the throat and nose, where the bacteria tend to colonize. By analyzing the sample, healthcare professionals can determine if the individual has been infected with the bacteria and is therefore at risk of developing whooping cough.

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54. Bone marrow is typically aspirated from the:

Explanation

Bone marrow is typically aspirated from the iliac crest. The iliac crest is the curved ridge at the top of the hip bone. It is a common site for bone marrow aspiration because it contains a rich supply of red bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells. Aspiration of bone marrow from the iliac crest is a relatively safe and accessible procedure that allows for the collection of an adequate sample for diagnostic purposes or transplantation.

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55. A technician is aspirating a speciemen from flexible tube coming out of a patient's nose.  What type of was was most likely ordered?

Explanation

The correct answer is gastric analysis. Gastric analysis involves collecting a sample of gastric fluid from the stomach for laboratory testing. In this scenario, the technician is aspirating a specimen from a flexible tube coming out of the patient's nose, which is a common method used to collect gastric fluid. This procedure helps to evaluate the acid production and other components of the gastric fluid, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal disorders.

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56. This test detects parasites and their eggs in feces.

Explanation

The correct answer is O&P because O&P stands for "ova and parasites," which refers to a laboratory test that detects the presence of parasites and their eggs in feces. This test is commonly used to diagnose parasitic infections in the gastrointestinal tract. The other options (C&S, FOBT, and HCG) are unrelated to the detection of parasites in feces.

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57. An exocrine gland disorder that primarily affects the lungs, upper respiratory tract, liver, and pancreas is:

Explanation

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the exocrine glands, which are responsible for producing and secreting various substances such as mucus and digestive enzymes. This disorder primarily affects the lungs, upper respiratory tract, liver, and pancreas. It causes the production of thick and sticky mucus, leading to respiratory problems, digestive issues, and other complications. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the destruction of the air sacs in the lungs, while herpes zoster is a viral infection causing a painful rash. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection primarily affecting the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is cystic fibrosis.

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58. Peritoneal fluid comes from the:

Explanation

Peritoneal fluid is a clear, watery fluid that fills the peritoneal cavity, which is located in the abdominal cavity. This fluid serves several important functions, including lubricating the organs and allowing them to move smoothly against each other. It also helps to protect the organs from friction and provides a medium for nutrient and waste exchange. The other options, such as lung cavities, pericardial sac, and spinal cavity, do not produce peritoneal fluid.

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59. This test may require serial urine specimens collected at specific times.

Explanation

The glucose tolerance test is a diagnostic test used to evaluate how the body metabolizes glucose. It involves collecting serial urine specimens at specific times to measure glucose levels and assess the body's ability to regulate blood sugar. This test is commonly used to diagnose diabetes and gestational diabetes.

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60. Which of the following statements is true of a urine creatinine clearance test?

Explanation

A urine creatinine clearance test requires a 24-hour urine specimen. This is because the test measures the amount of creatinine, a waste product, that is cleared from the blood by the kidneys and excreted in the urine over a 24-hour period. By collecting all the urine produced in a day, the test can provide an accurate measurement of kidney function. Fasting blood creatinine is not required for this test, and there is no mention of double-voiding or keeping the urine at body temperature in the question.

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61. Which of the following types of ETS tubes are used for synovial fluid specimens?

Explanation

The correct answer is EDTA, heparin, and nonadditive. Synovial fluid specimens are commonly collected for analysis in the laboratory. EDTA and heparin are anticoagulants that prevent the blood from clotting, which is important when analyzing synovial fluid. Nonadditive tubes are also used for synovial fluid specimens as they do not contain any additives that may interfere with the analysis. ACD, CPD, and serum separator are not typically used for synovial fluid specimens. Citrate tubes are commonly used for coagulation studies, and sodium fluoride tubes are used for glucose analysis.

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62. This test requries intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin.

Explanation

The correct answer is gastric analysis. This test requires the intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin. Gastric analysis is a procedure used to measure the amount of acid produced by the stomach. By stimulating the stomach to produce acid, the test can help diagnose conditions such as peptic ulcers, gastritis, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The administration of histamine or pentagastrin helps to stimulate acid production, and the analysis of the gastric fluid can provide valuable information about the functioning of the stomach.

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63. Which urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle directly into the urinary bladder and aspirating a sample of urine?

Explanation

Suprapubic urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle directly into the urinary bladder and aspirating a sample of urine. This method is used when a clean catch or catheterized urine specimen cannot be obtained, or when a more accurate sample is needed for diagnostic purposes.

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64. Which type of specimen is typically used for routine urinalysis?

Explanation

Random specimens are typically used for routine urinalysis because they provide a representative sample of the patient's urine at any given time. This type of specimen can be collected at any time during the day, without any specific instructions regarding timing or preparation. It is convenient for both patients and healthcare providers, as it does not require strict adherence to specific collection protocols. Random specimens are commonly used to evaluate various aspects of urine, such as color, appearance, pH, specific gravity, and the presence of abnormal substances like glucose, protein, or blood.

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65. This type of specimen is sometimes used to compare urine concentrations of glucose and ketones to blood concentrations.

Explanation

Double-voided specimens are sometimes used to compare urine concentrations of glucose and ketones to blood concentrations. This is because a double-voided specimen is collected by collecting urine twice in a short period of time, typically within a few hours. This allows for a more accurate comparison between urine and blood concentrations, as it reduces the potential for variations in urine concentration due to factors such as hydration levels or time of day.

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66. The first tube of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collected is typically used for:

Explanation

The first tube of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collected is typically used for chemistry studies. This is because the first tube contains CSF that is most representative of the patient's overall CSF composition. Chemistry studies analyze the levels of various substances in the CSF, such as glucose, protein, and electrolytes, to assess for any abnormalities or diseases. Counting the cells, immunology tests, and microbiology tests are typically performed on subsequent tubes of CSF, as they require a larger volume and may be affected by contamination from the initial collection.

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67. Which of the following is a type of serous fluid?

Explanation

Pleural fluid is a type of serous fluid that is found in the pleural cavity, which surrounds the lungs. It helps to lubricate the surfaces of the pleura, reducing friction during breathing. Pleural fluid also plays a role in maintaining the pressure balance within the pleural cavity, allowing the lungs to expand and contract properly. The other options listed, gastric, seminal, and synovial, are not types of serous fluid.

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68. Which of the following tests may require a 72-hour stool specimen?

Explanation

A 72-hour stool specimen may be required for fecal fat analysis. This test is used to measure the amount of fat in the stool, which can help diagnose malabsorption disorders such as pancreatic insufficiency or celiac disease. Collecting stool samples over a 72-hour period allows for a more accurate measurement of fat excretion.

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69. Accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called:

Explanation

Ascites is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease, or certain cancers. Ascites can lead to abdominal swelling, discomfort, and difficulty breathing. Edema, on the other hand, refers to the accumulation of excess fluid in tissues throughout the body, not specifically in the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane lining the abdominal cavity, and septicemia is a severe bloodstream infection.

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70. Which specimen is ideal for most urine tests?

Explanation

The 8-hour specimen is ideal for most urine tests because it is a timed collection that ensures the urine sample is representative of the body's normal metabolic state. This specimen is collected over an 8-hour period, typically starting in the morning after the first void, and includes all urine produced during that time. It is useful for assessing kidney function, detecting urinary tract infections, and monitoring certain medical conditions. The 8-hour specimen provides a standardized and controlled collection method, making it a reliable choice for urine testing.

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71. The hydrogen breath test detects:

Explanation

The hydrogen breath test is used to detect lactose intolerance. This is because lactose intolerant individuals lack the enzyme lactase, which is responsible for breaking down lactose (a sugar found in milk and dairy products). When lactose is not properly digested, it ferments in the colon, producing hydrogen gas. This gas is then absorbed into the bloodstream and exhaled through the breath. Therefore, the presence of high levels of hydrogen in the breath after consuming a lactose-containing substance indicates lactose intolerance.

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72. A breath specimen can be used to detect:

Explanation

A breath specimen can be used to detect H. Pylori, a bacterium that infects the stomach and can cause various gastrointestinal problems such as gastritis and ulcers. This is done through a breath test called the urea breath test, where the patient ingests a small amount of urea labeled with a specific carbon isotope. If H. Pylori is present in the stomach, it produces an enzyme called urease that breaks down the urea, releasing carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide is then detected in the breath sample, indicating the presence of the bacterium.

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73. This test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis.

Explanation

Sweat chloride testing is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the production of sweat, mucus, and digestive juices. In individuals with cystic fibrosis, the sweat glands produce abnormally high levels of chloride. By measuring the concentration of chloride in sweat, doctors can determine if a person has cystic fibrosis. This test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis and is commonly used in newborn screening programs.

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74. Which specimen should be transported at 37C?

Explanation

The O&P (Ova and Parasite) specimen should be transported at 37C because it involves the examination of fecal samples for the presence of parasites and their eggs. Parasites are sensitive to temperature changes, and maintaining the specimen at 37C helps to ensure their survival and accurate identification. This temperature is optimal for the growth and development of certain parasites, allowing for better detection and analysis. Transporting the O&P specimen at 37C increases the chances of obtaining reliable and conclusive results.

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Which of the following types of infections would be classified as an...
Suspected pregnancy is typically confirmed by testing urine for the...
This fluid comes from the male reproductive system.
Which of the following can occur in urine specimens that are not...
What type of specimen is collected during a biopsy?
What special information in addition to routine identification...
A minimally invasive way of obtaining cells for dna analysis is to...
CSF is the abbreviation for fluid that comes from the:
A test that identifies bacteria and the antibiotics that can be used...
Fluid aspirated from the sac that surrounds the heart is called:
ROutine urinalysis specimens that cannot be analyzed within 2 hours...
Midstream clean-catch urine specimens require:
Amniotic fluid comes from the:
This test can be used to evaulate stomach acid production.
Semen analysis can be performed to:
A urine C&S is typically ordered to:
Which of the following fluids is obtained through lumbar puncture?
The most frequently analyzed non-blood specimen is:
Tests commonly performed on CSF include:
Fluid from joint cavities is called:
Which of the following midstream urine collection steps are in the...
A term used to describe blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye...
Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated?
A type of bacterium that can damage the stomach lining is:
A semen specimen is unlikely to be accepted for testing if it is:
Urine cytology studies look for the presence of:
Synovial fluid can be tested to identify:
A catheterized urine specimen is collected:
CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of:
What type of specimen is required for a "rapid strep" test?
An antibiotic susceptibility test determines which antibiotics:
This test includes a physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of...
Which type of specimen must be handled and analyzed stat?
Sputum specimens are collected in the diagnosis of:
A technician collects a specimen from a child's mouse by rubbing a...
What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine...
Bone marrow is studied to identify:
Pleural fluid is aspirated from the:
A process called iontophoresis is used to collect:
Clean-catch refers to the collection of urine:
This type of specimen is obtained by inserting a flexible swab through...
What is sputum?
Which urine test requries a midstream clean-catch specimen?
Which of the following tests is sometimes performed on amniotic fluid?
This microbe is often the causative agent of hospital-acquired...
The guaiac test detects:
This type of sample is sometimes collected for drug testing because it...
Which site is typically used when performing a sweat chloride test on...
Which type of urine specimen is best for pregnancy testing?
Which type of sample can be tested to detect chronic drug abuse?
Which of the following is typically included in a routine UA?
Urine drug screening is unable to:
An NP culture swab is sometimes collected to detect the presence of...
Bone marrow is typically aspirated from the:
A technician is aspirating a speciemen from flexible tube coming out...
This test detects parasites and their eggs in feces.
An exocrine gland disorder that primarily affects the lungs, upper...
Peritoneal fluid comes from the:
This test may require serial urine specimens collected at specific...
Which of the following statements is true of a urine creatinine...
Which of the following types of ETS tubes are used for synovial fluid...
This test requries intravenous administration of histamine or...
Which urine specimen is obtained by inserting a sterile needle...
Which type of specimen is typically used for routine urinalysis?
This type of specimen is sometimes used to compare urine...
The first tube of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collected is typically...
Which of the following is a type of serous fluid?
Which of the following tests may require a 72-hour stool specimen?
Accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called:
Which specimen is ideal for most urine tests?
The hydrogen breath test detects:
A breath specimen can be used to detect:
This test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis.
Which specimen should be transported at 37C?
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