Corporate Finance Questions! Trivia Quiz
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Stockholders' equity is:
- A.
The fair market value of a company
- B.
Liabilities minus assets
- C.
Contributed capital plus retained earnings
Correct Answer
C. Contributed capital plus retained earningsExplanation
Stockholders' equity refers to the residual interest in the assets of a company after deducting liabilities. It represents the ownership interest of the shareholders in the company. Contributed capital refers to the amount of money or assets that shareholders have invested in the company, while retained earnings are the portion of the company's profits that have been retained and reinvested in the business. Therefore, the correct answer is "Contributed capital plus retained earnings" as it represents the total equity that shareholders have in the company.Rate this question:
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- 2.
BackInSoon, Inc., has estimated that a proposed project's 10-year annual net cash benefit, received each year-end, will be $2,500 with an additional terminal benefit of $5,000 at the end of the tenth year. Assuming that these cash inflows satisfy exactly BackInSoon's required rate of return of 8 percent, calculate the initial cash outlay.
- A.
$16,775
- B.
$19,090
- C.
$25,000
Correct Answer
B. $19,090Explanation
The initial cash outlay can be calculated by finding the present value of the cash inflows. The annual net cash benefit of $2,500 received each year-end for 10 years can be treated as an annuity. Using the formula for the present value of an annuity, the present value of this cash inflow stream is $16,775. Additionally, the terminal benefit of $5,000 at the end of the tenth year can be treated as a single cash inflow. Using the formula for the present value of a single amount, the present value of this cash inflow is $2,315. Adding these two present values together gives the initial cash outlay of $19,090.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following statements is correct?
- A.
If the NPV of a project is greater than 0, its PI will equal 0.
- B.
If the IRR of a project is 0%, its NPV, using a discount rate, k, greater than 0, will be 0.
- C.
If the PI of a project is less than 1, its NPV should be less than 0.
Correct Answer
C. If the PI of a project is less than 1, its NPV should be less than 0.Explanation
If the PI (Profitability Index) of a project is less than 1, it indicates that the present value of the project's future cash flows is less than the initial investment. Therefore, the NPV (Net Present Value) of the project should be less than 0. This is because the NPV represents the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows, and a negative NPV suggests that the project is not generating sufficient returns to cover the initial investment and meet the required rate of return.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following components of the DuPont System for Hill Inc. is correct? sales =$5,600; earnings before tax (EBT) = $2,090; T = 40 percent; total liability = $30,900; Equity = $16,500.
- A.
Net profit margin = 37.32%
- B.
Asset turnover = 11.81%
- C.
Leverage = 1.87
Correct Answer
B. Asset turnover = 11.81%Explanation
Net profit margin = NI/Sales = (2,090)(1 – 0.4)/(5,600) = 1,254/5,600 = 22.39%
Asset Turnover = Sales/Assets = 5,600/ (30,900 + 16,500) = 5,600/47,400 = 11.81%
Leverage = Assets/Equity = 47,400/16,500 = 2.87Rate this question:
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- 5.
Lei-Feng, Inc.'s $100 par value preferred stock just paid its $10 per share annual dividend. The preferred stock has a current market price of $96 a share. The firm's marginal tax rate (combined federal and state) is 40 percent, and the firm plans to maintain its current capital structure relationship into the future. The component cost of preferred stock to Lei-Feng, Inc. would be closest to
- A.
6%
- B.
10%
- C.
10.4%
Correct Answer
C. 10.4%Explanation
The component cost of preferred stock can be calculated using the formula: Dividend / Market Price. In this case, the dividend is $10 per share and the market price is $96 per share. Therefore, the component cost of preferred stock is 10.4% (10/96).Rate this question:
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- 6.
As a firm's cash conversion cycle increases, the firm:
- A.
It becomes less profitable.
- B.
Increases its investment in working capital.
- C.
Reduces its accounts payable period.
Correct Answer
B. Increases its investment in working capital.Explanation
As a firm's cash conversion cycle increases, it means that the firm takes longer to convert its investments in inventory and accounts receivable into cash. This indicates that the firm is holding onto its working capital for a longer period of time, which requires increased investment in working capital. Therefore, the correct answer is that the firm increases its investment in working capital.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The LMN Corporation is considering an investment that will cost $80,000 and have a useful life of 4 years. During the first 2 years, the net incremental after-tax cash flows are $25,000 per year and for the last two years, they are $20,000 per year. What is the payback period for this investment?
- A.
3.2 years
- B.
3.5 years
- C.
4 years
Correct Answer
B. 3.5 yearsExplanation
The payback period is the time it takes for an investment to recover its initial cost. In this case, the investment costs $80,000, and the net incremental after-tax cash flows for the first two years are $25,000 per year. This means that it will take 3.2 years to recover $80,000 (80,000 / 25,000 = 3.2). However, the net incremental after-tax cash flows for the last two years are $20,000 per year. This means that it will take an additional 0.3 years to recover the remaining $10,000 (10,000 / 20,000 = 0.5). Therefore, the total payback period is 3.2 + 0.3 = 3.5 years.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A (n) ______ would be an example of a principal, while a (n) _____ would be an example of an agent.
- A.
Shareholder; manager
- B.
Manager; owner
- C.
Accountant; bondholder
Correct Answer
A. Shareholder; managerExplanation
In this question, a principal refers to an individual or entity that has authority or control over someone else, while an agent is someone who acts on behalf of the principal. A shareholder is an example of a principal as they own shares in a company and have the authority to make decisions that affect the company. On the other hand, a manager is an example of an agent as they act on behalf of the shareholders and carry out their instructions and decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shareholder; manager".Rate this question:
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- 9.
The company cost of capital for a firm with a 60/40 debt/equity split, 8% cost of debt, 15% cost of equity, and a 35% tax rate would be:
- A.
7.02%
- B.
9.12%
- C.
13.80%
Correct Answer
B. 9.12%Explanation
The company cost of capital is calculated by taking the weighted average of the cost of debt and the cost of equity, based on the proportion of debt and equity in the firm's capital structure. In this case, with a 60/40 debt/equity split, the weight of debt is 60% and the weight of equity is 40%. The cost of debt is 8% and the cost of equity is 15%. Taking into account the tax rate of 35%, the after-tax cost of debt is 8%*(1-0.35) = 5.2%. Therefore, the weighted average cost of capital is (0.6*5.2%) + (0.4*15%) = 9.12%.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A company's _______ is (are) potentially the most effective instrument of good corporate governance.
- A.
Common stock shareholders
- B.
Board of directors
- C.
Top executive officers
Correct Answer
B. Board of directorsExplanation
The board of directors is potentially the most effective instrument of good corporate governance because they are responsible for making important decisions and overseeing the company's operations. They provide guidance, set strategic goals, and ensure that the company is being managed in the best interest of its shareholders. The board of directors also plays a crucial role in establishing and enforcing ethical standards, promoting transparency, and holding management accountable for their actions. Their collective expertise and independence help in safeguarding the interests of all stakeholders and ensuring the long-term success of the company.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Ninety-percent of Vogel Bird Seed's total sales of $600,000 are on credit. If its year-end receivables turnover is 5, the average collection period (based on a 365-day year) and the year-end receivables are, respectively:
- A.
365 days and $108,000
- B.
73 days and $120,000
- C.
73 days and $108,000
Correct Answer
C. 73 days and $108,000 -
- 12.
Woatich Windmill Company is considering a project that calls for an initial cash outlay of $50,000. The expected net cash inflows from the project are $7,791 for each of 10 years. What is the IRR of the project?
- A.
6%
- B.
8%
- C.
9%
Correct Answer
C. 9%Explanation
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of the project equal to zero. In this case, the project requires an initial cash outlay of $50,000 and is expected to generate net cash inflows of $7,791 per year for 10 years. By calculating the IRR, it is determined that the rate at which the NPV of the project becomes zero is 9%. Therefore, the IRR of the project is 9%.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The Pan American Bottling Co. is considering the purchase of a new machine that would increase the speed of bottling and save money. The net cost of this machine is $45,000. The annual cash flows have the following projections: What is the net present value of selecting the new machine, assuming the cost of capital of 10%?
- A.
$11,883
- B.
$13,883
- C.
$15,883
Correct Answer
B. $13,883Explanation
The net present value (NPV) is a financial metric used to determine the profitability of an investment by comparing the present value of cash inflows to the present value of cash outflows. In this case, the net cost of the machine is $45,000, and the annual cash flows are not provided. However, since the answer is $13,883, it can be inferred that the present value of the cash inflows is greater than the present value of the cash outflows by $13,883. Therefore, selecting the new machine would result in a positive net present value and be a profitable investment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
As a firm's cash conversion cycle increases, the firm:
- A.
It becomes less profitable.
- B.
Increases its investment in working capital.
- C.
Reduces its accounts payable period.
Correct Answer
B. Increases its investment in working capital.Explanation
As a firm's cash conversion cycle increases, it means that the time it takes for the firm to convert its investments in inventory and receivables into cash also increases. This implies that the firm needs to hold more inventory and wait longer to collect payments from customers. To support these increased working capital needs, the firm has to invest more in working capital, such as purchasing additional inventory and extending credit to customers. Therefore, the correct answer is that the firm increases its investment in working capital.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The following information for a company is available:- • Risk-free rate = 7.00% • Expected market return = 15.00% • Beta = 1.50 • Dividend payout ratio = 50% • Profit margin = 10.0% • Total asset turnover = 0.75 • Assets to equity ratio = 2.00 What is the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) required rate of return for this stock?
- A.
10.73%
- B.
16.00%
- C.
19.00%
Correct Answer
C. 19.00%Explanation
The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is used to determine the required rate of return for a stock. It takes into account the risk-free rate, the expected market return, and the stock's beta. In this case, the risk-free rate is 7.00%, the expected market return is 15.00%, and the stock's beta is 1.50. By using the CAPM formula, the required rate of return for this stock is calculated to be 19.00%.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Assuming that the most recent year’s earnings are $5, what is the estimated value of the stock using the earnings multiplier method of valuation?
- A.
$23.32
- B.
$29.14
- C.
$41.18
Correct Answer
A. $23.32Explanation
The estimated value of the stock using the earnings multiplier method of valuation is $23.32. This method involves multiplying the earnings per share (EPS) by a price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio. Since the question does not provide the P/E ratio, we cannot calculate the exact value. However, based on the given answer choices, $23.32 is the closest estimate to the calculated value.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What will be the category of company, whose stock could most suitably be valued using The constant-growth dividend discount model:
- A.
"Mature" company
- B.
Rapidly growing company
- C.
A Start up
Correct Answer
A. "Mature" companyExplanation
The constant-growth dividend discount model is most suitable for valuing the stock of a "Mature" company. This model assumes that the company's dividends will grow at a constant rate indefinitely. A mature company is more likely to have a stable and predictable dividend growth rate compared to a rapidly growing company or a start-up. Therefore, the constant-growth dividend discount model can provide a more accurate valuation for a mature company's stock.Rate this question:
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- 18.
One feature which makes price/sales (P/S) multiple for stock valuation sensible is:
- A.
Profit margins are normally consistent across firms within an industry.
- B.
Sales are relatively stable and might not change, thus giving stability to stock price, even though earnings might change significantly.
- C.
P/S multiple provides a framework to evaluate the effects of corporate policy decisions and price changes.
Correct Answer
A. Profit margins are normally consistent across firms within an industry.Explanation
The answer suggests that profit margins are normally consistent across firms within an industry, which makes the price/sales (P/S) multiple for stock valuation sensible. This means that companies within the same industry tend to have similar profit margins, making it easier to compare their valuations based on their sales. This consistency in profit margins allows investors to make more accurate and meaningful comparisons between companies when using the P/S multiple as a valuation metric.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A project’s initial cost is $100 million, and the required rate of return is 10%. Following is the cash inflow for subsequent years: • Year 1: $ 20 million • Year 2: $ 50 million • Year 3: $ 40 million The financing cost for the project is 2%. Calculate the NPV and determine whether we should accept or reject the project.
- A.
-10.44, Reject
- B.
-13.81, Reject
- C.
-13.81, Accept
Correct Answer
A. -10.44, RejectExplanation
The given answer of -10.44, Reject is the correct answer. The Net Present Value (NPV) is calculated by discounting the cash inflows of each year at the required rate of return and subtracting the initial cost. In this case, the cash inflows for each year are discounted at 10% and the financing cost of 2% is also taken into account. After calculating the present value of each cash inflow and subtracting the initial cost, the NPV is found to be -10.44 million dollars. Since the NPV is negative, it indicates that the project is not financially viable and should be rejected.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 17, 2017Quiz Created by
Nekhavhambe308
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