NBE Medical Practice Test Quiz!

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| By Tsurendra

Tsurendra

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 124

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 124 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with all of the following except:
- A.
  
  Pancytopenia
- B.
  
  Recurrent abortions
- C.
  
  Venous thrombosis
- D.
  
  Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer
A. Pancytopenia

Explanation
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that causes abnormal blood clotting. It is characterized by recurrent abortions, venous thrombosis, and pulmonary hypertension. Pancytopenia, which refers to a decrease in all three types of blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), is not typically associated with antiphospholipid syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is pancytopenia.

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2.

A 20-year young man presents with exerting ironal dyspnoea, headache, and giddiness. On examination, there is hypertension and LVH. X-ray picture shows notching of the anterior ends of ribs. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Pheochromocytoma
- B.
  
  Carcinoid syndrome
- C.
  
  Coarctation of aorta
- D.
  
  Superior mediastinal syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Coarctation of aorta

Explanation
The most likely diagnosis in this case is coarctation of the aorta. This condition is characterized by narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper body and decreased blood flow to the lower body. The symptoms of exertional dyspnea, headache, and giddiness are consistent with the decreased blood flow to the lower body. The presence of hypertension and left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) on examination further support this diagnosis. Notching of the anterior ends of ribs seen on the X-ray picture is a classic finding in coarctation of the aorta, caused by collateral blood flow from intercostal arteries.

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3.

A patient with a fracture pelvis is admitted to ICU after surgery. Postoperatively, he develops sudden dyspnoea and chest pain. The likely cause is:
- A.
  
  Pulmonary thromboembolism
- B.
  
  Shock
- C.
  
  Respiratory infection
- D.
  
  ARDS
Correct Answer
A. Pulmonary thromboembolism

Explanation
The patient's sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain after surgery suggests a potential complication related to the lungs. Pulmonary thromboembolism is a condition where a blood clot (thrombus) travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath and chest pain. This is a common complication after surgery, especially in patients who are immobile for extended periods. It is important to consider this diagnosis promptly as it can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.

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4.

The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3-year-old child:
- A.
  
  Trauma
- B.
  
  Tuberculosis
- C.
  
  Vesicourethral reflex induced pyelonephritis
- D.
  
  Interstitial nephritis
Correct Answer
C. Vesicourethral reflex induced pyelonepHritis

Explanation
Vesicourethral reflex induced pyelonephritis is the most common cause of renal scarring in a 3-year-old child. This condition occurs when urine flows backward from the bladder into the kidneys, leading to inflammation and infection. If left untreated, it can cause scarring of the renal tissue. Trauma, tuberculosis, and interstitial nephritis are not typically associated with renal scarring in young children.

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5.

A 50-year-old male has 4 dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with early-stage squamous cell cancer of the anal canal. He has a more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is:
- A.
  
  Abdomino-perineal resection
- B.
  
  Combined surgery and chemotherapy
- C.
  
  Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy
- D.
  
  Chemotherapy alone
Correct Answer
C. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Explanation
The best treatment option for a 50-year-old male with early-stage squamous cell cancer of the anal canal and 4 dependent family members is combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy. This option provides the highest chances of cure, with a success rate of more than 60%. Chemotherapy alone may not be as effective, while abdomino-perineal resection, which involves surgical removal of the affected area, may have more complications and longer recovery time. Combined surgery and chemotherapy may also be an option, but combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy is generally considered the most effective treatment for this type of cancer.

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6.

Which is not true about alcoholic hepatitis?
- A.
  
  Gamma glutamyl transferase is raised
- B.
  
  SGPT is raised>SGOT
- C.
  
  SGOT is raised>SGPT
- D.
  
  Alkaline phosphatase is raised
Correct Answer
B. SGPT is raised>SGOT

Explanation
Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the liver caused by excessive alcohol consumption. In this condition, the levels of certain liver enzymes are elevated. One of these enzymes is gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT), which is typically raised in alcoholic hepatitis. Another enzyme, serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT), is also commonly elevated in this condition. However, serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) is usually more significantly increased than SGPT in alcoholic hepatitis. Therefore, the statement that SGPT is raised more than SGOT in alcoholic hepatitis is not true.

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7.

A 35-years-old male develops involvements of PIP, DIP, and metacarpophalangeal joints with sparing of the wrist and carpometacarpal joints. The probable diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Psoriatic arthropathy
- B.
  
  Osteo arthritis
- C.
  
  Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
  
  Pseudo gout
Correct Answer
A. Psoriatic arthropathy

Explanation
Psoriatic arthropathy is the most likely diagnosis based on the pattern of joint involvement described. Psoriatic arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands, such as the PIP, DIP, and metacarpophalangeal joints, while sparing the wrist and carpometacarpal joints. This pattern of joint involvement is distinct from osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and pseudogout.

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8.

The drug of choice for absence seizures:
- A.
  
  Valproate
- B.
  
  Gabapentin
- C.
  
  Carbamezepine
- D.
  
  Phenytoin
Correct Answer
A. Valproate

Explanation
Valproate is the drug of choice for absence seizures because it has been shown to effectively control these types of seizures. It works by increasing the levels of a neurotransmitter called GABA in the brain, which helps to reduce the abnormal electrical activity that causes absence seizures. Valproate is also well-tolerated and has a relatively low risk of side effects compared to other anti-seizure medications. Therefore, it is considered the preferred treatment option for individuals with absence seizures.

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9.

A 45-years-old woman, presenting with a history of diplopia and dysphagia worsening as day progresses, can be diagnosed as:
- A.
  
  Thyrotoxicosis
- B.
  
  Myesthenia gravis
- C.
  
  Muscular dystrophy
- D.
  
  Brain tumour
Correct Answer
B. Myesthenia gravis

Explanation
The symptoms of diplopia (double vision) and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) worsening as the day progresses are characteristic of myesthenia gravis. Myesthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder that affects the communication between nerves and muscles, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. These symptoms are often aggravated with use and improve with rest. Thyrotoxicosis, muscular dystrophy, and brain tumor may present with different symptoms and are less likely to exhibit the specific pattern of worsening symptoms seen in myesthenia gravis.

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10.

All are the features of anorexia nervosa except:
- A.
  
  Predominently seen in females
- B.
  
  Loss of weight at the time of presentation
- C.
  
  Amenorrhea is rare
- D.
  
  Avoidance of high caloric foods
Correct Answer
C. Amenorrhea is rare

Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by extreme fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. It is predominantly seen in females and is often accompanied by significant weight loss at the time of presentation. Individuals with anorexia nervosa commonly exhibit amenorrhea, which is the absence of menstrual periods. Therefore, the statement that amenorrhea is rare in anorexia nervosa is incorrect.

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11.

True about tumour lysis syndrome, are all except:
- A.
  
  Hyperuriceamia
- B.
  
  Hypercalcemia
- C.
  
  Hyperkalemia
- D.
  
  Hyperphosphatemia
Correct Answer
B. Hypercalcemia

Explanation
Tumor lysis syndrome is a condition that occurs when cancer cells release their contents into the bloodstream, leading to metabolic abnormalities. Hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperphosphatemia are all characteristic features of tumor lysis syndrome. However, hypercalcemia is not typically associated with tumor lysis syndrome. Hypercalcemia is more commonly seen in other conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or certain types of cancer like multiple myeloma. Therefore, hypercalcemia is the exception among the listed options.

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12.

All are true regarding gynecomastia except:
- A.
  
  Seen in addisons disease
- B.
  
  Unilateral in young males
- C.
  
  Acini are not involved
- D.
  
  Bilaterality is due to endocrinopathy
Correct Answer(s)
A. Seen in addisons disease
B. Unilateral in young males

Explanation
Gynecomastia is a condition characterized by the enlargement of breast tissue in males. It is commonly seen in conditions such as hormonal imbalances, liver disease, and obesity. However, it is not typically associated with Addison's disease, which is a hormonal disorder affecting the adrenal glands. Gynecomastia is often bilateral, meaning it affects both breasts, and can occur in both young and older males. The enlargement of breast tissue in gynecomastia is due to an increase in the size of the glandular tissue, or acini, within the breasts. Therefore, the statement "acini are not involved" is incorrect.

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13.

In the Postoperative room, after thyroid surgery, a patient developed sudden respiratory distress, dressing was removed and it was found to be blood stained and wound was bulging. What will be the first thing to be done?
- A.
  
  Tracheostomy
- B.
  
  Cricothyroidotomy
- C.
  
  Laryngoscopy and intubation
- D.
  
  Remove the stitch and take patient to O.T
Correct Answer
D. Remove the stitch and take patient to O.T

Explanation
The correct answer is to remove the stitch and take the patient to the operating room (O.T). This is because the patient is experiencing sudden respiratory distress, which could be due to a hematoma or bleeding at the surgical site. Removing the stitch and taking the patient back to the operating room allows for immediate evaluation and intervention to control the bleeding and prevent further complications. Tracheostomy, cricothyroidotomy, and laryngoscopy and intubation may be necessary in certain situations, but in this case, addressing the bleeding is the priority.

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14.

When a spontaneous perforation of the esophagus occurs as a result of severe barotrauma while a person vomits against a closed glottis, what is the condition known as?
- A.
  
  Mallory weiss syndrome
- B.
  
  Plummer vinson syndrome
- C.
  
  Kartagener syndrome
- D.
  
  Boerhaave syndrome
Correct Answer
D. Boerhaave syndrome

Explanation
Boerhaave syndrome is the condition that occurs when there is a spontaneous perforation of the esophagus due to severe barotrauma while a person vomits against a closed glottis. This syndrome is named after the Dutch physician Herman Boerhaave who first described it. It is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment as the perforation can lead to serious complications such as infection and mediastinitis. Symptoms may include severe chest pain, difficulty swallowing, and subcutaneous emphysema. Prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention are crucial for a successful outcome.

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15.

A 43-years-old male presents with painless cystic liver enlargement of 4 years duration without fever or jaundice. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Amoebic liver abscess
- B.
  
  Hepatoma
- C.
  
  Hydatid cyst of liver
- D.
  
  Choledochal cyst
Correct Answer
C. Hydatid cyst of liver

Explanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 43-year-old male presenting with painless cystic liver enlargement of 4 years duration without fever or jaundice is a hydatid cyst of the liver. Hydatid cysts are caused by the larval stage of the Echinococcus granulosus tapeworm. They typically present as painless cystic masses in the liver and are more common in endemic areas. Other options such as amoebic liver abscess, hepatoma, and choledochal cyst are less likely based on the given information.

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16.

Which of the following is not an indication for cholecystectomy?
- A.
  
  70-years-old male with symptomatic gallstones
- B.
  
  20-years-old male with sickle cell anemia with symptomatic gallstones
- C.
  
  65-years-old female with large gallbladder polyp
- D.
  
  55-years-old with a symptomatic gallstone
Correct Answer
D. 55-years-old with a symptomatic gallstone

Explanation
The correct answer is "55-years-old with a symptomatic gallstone." Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder and is typically indicated for patients with symptomatic gallstones or complications related to gallstones. In this case, the 55-year-old patient has a symptomatic gallstone, which would be an indication for cholecystectomy. Therefore, this option is not an indication for cholecystectomy.

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17.

A 45-years-old gentle man has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:
- A.
  
  Basal acid output of 15meq/hr
- B.
  
  Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml
- C.
  
  Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of oesophaguss
- D.
  
  Seum gastrin value of 220pg/ml with secretion stimulation
Correct Answer
D. Seum gastrin value of 220pg/ml with secretion stimulation

Explanation
The correct answer is "serum gastrin value of 220pg/ml with secretion stimulation". This is because Zollinger Ellison syndrome is characterized by excessive production of gastrin, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and the formation of multiple peptic ulcers. Therefore, a high basal acid output and elevated serum gastrin levels are expected in patients with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. The presence of ulcers in the proximal jejunum and lower end of the esophagus also supports the diagnosis. However, a serum gastrin value of 220pg/ml with secretion stimulation is within the normal range and does not suggest Zollinger Ellison syndrome.

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18.

Most common cause of lower GI bleed in INDIA is:
- A.
  
  Benign tumour
- B.
  
  Non specific ulcer
- C.
  
  Cancer rectosigmoid
- D.
  
  Hemorrhoids
Correct Answer
D. Hemorrhoids

Explanation
Hemorrhoids are the most common cause of lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in India. Hemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen blood vessels in the rectum or anus that can become irritated and bleed. They are often caused by increased pressure in the rectal area, such as straining during bowel movements, pregnancy, or chronic constipation. Hemorrhoids are relatively common and can range from mild discomfort to severe pain and bleeding. Therefore, it is not surprising that they are the most common cause of lower GI bleeding in India.

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19.

Coffee bean sign is usually seen in:
- A.
  
  Volvolus
- B.
  
  Pyloric obstruction
- C.
  
  Intessuception
- D.
  
  Intestinal obstruction
Correct Answer
A. Volvolus

Explanation
The coffee bean sign is typically seen in volvulus, which is a condition where a loop of the intestine twists around itself, causing a blockage. This twisted loop resembles the shape of a coffee bean on imaging studies such as X-rays or CT scans. Volvulus can lead to severe symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting, and it requires immediate medical intervention to prevent tissue damage or bowel perforation.

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20.

Golf hole ureter is seen in:
- A.
  
  Ureteric calculus
- B.
  
  Ureteral polyp
- C.
  
  Tuberculosis of ureter
- D.
  
  Retroperitoneal fibrosis
Correct Answer
C. Tuberculosis of ureter

Explanation
The term "golf hole ureter" refers to a specific appearance of the ureter on imaging studies, resembling the shape of a golf hole. This finding is commonly seen in cases of tuberculosis of the ureter. Tuberculosis can cause scarring and narrowing of the ureter, leading to this characteristic appearance. Ureteric calculus, ureteral polyp, and retroperitoneal fibrosis may also cause ureteral abnormalities, but they do not typically result in the specific "golf hole" appearance.

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21.

During urethral catheterisation in male patients,resistance is encountered at the following sites except:
- A.
  
  Base of navicular fossa
- B.
  
  Mid-penile urethra
- C.
  
  Urogenital diaphragm
- D.
  
  Bulbo membranous junction
Correct Answer
A. Base of navicular fossa

Explanation
Resistance is encountered during urethral catheterization when the catheter encounters a narrowing or obstruction in the urethra. The base of the navicular fossa is not a site where resistance is typically encountered. The other options, including the mid-penile urethra, urogenital diaphragm, and bulbo membranous junction, are all potential sites where resistance may be encountered during catheterization.

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22.

All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes except:
- A.
  
  Multiple sclerosis
- B.
  
  Head injury
- C.
  
  Histiocytosis
- D.
  
  Viral encephalitis
Correct Answer
A. Multiple sclerosis

Explanation
Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers. It is not known to directly cause diabetes. On the other hand, head injury, histiocytosis, and viral encephalitis can all lead to diabetes as a secondary complication.

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23.

FNAC needle size is?
- A.
  
  18-22
- B.
  
  22-26
- C.
  
  27-19
- D.
  
  16-18
Correct Answer
B. 22-26

Explanation
The correct answer is 22-26. FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology) is a procedure used to obtain a tissue sample for examination. The needle size used in FNAC typically ranges from 22 to 26 gauge. This gauge range is suitable for extracting a small amount of tissue without causing significant discomfort to the patient.

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24.

Arthroscopy is contraindicated in:
- A.
  
  Chronic joint disease
- B.
  
  Loose bodies
- C.
  
  Hemophilia
- D.
  
  Meniscal tear
Correct Answer
C. HemopHilia

Explanation
Arthroscopy is contraindicated in individuals with hemophilia because it is a bleeding disorder that impairs the body's ability to clot blood. During arthroscopy, a small incision is made to insert a camera and surgical instruments into the joint. This procedure can potentially cause bleeding, which can be difficult to control in individuals with hemophilia. Therefore, arthroscopy is not recommended for individuals with this condition to avoid further complications and potential harm.

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25.

Madelung's deformity involves the following:
- A.
  
  Knee
- B.
  
  Wrist
- C.
  
  Hip
- D.
  
  Elbow
Correct Answer
B. Wrist

Explanation
Madelung's deformity is a condition characterized by abnormal growth of the wrist bones, specifically the distal radius and ulna. This leads to a deformity in the shape and alignment of the wrist joint, causing it to appear bent or tilted. The condition typically presents during adolescence and is more common in females. Symptoms may include pain, limited range of motion, and weakness in the affected wrist. Treatment options may include physical therapy, bracing, or in severe cases, surgical intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is wrist.

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26.

Nail patella syndrome is characterised by following except?
- A.
  
  Iliac horn
- B.
  
  Sacral horn
- C.
  
  Absent patella
- D.
  
  Knee deformity
- E.
  
  Dislocation of patella
Correct Answer
B. Sacral horn

Explanation
Nail patella syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the development of nails, kneecaps, and other parts of the body. It is characterized by various symptoms, including absent or underdeveloped patella (kneecap), nail abnormalities, and knee deformities. However, sacral horn is not a characteristic feature of nail patella syndrome. Sacral horn is a rare skeletal abnormality that is not typically associated with this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is sacral horn.

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27.

Best treatment for fracture neck femur in a 65-years-old female:
- A.
  
  Gleotomy
- B.
  
  Pop cast
- C.
  
  Hemireplacement arthroplasty
- D.
  
  Bone grafting and compression
Correct Answer
C. Hemireplacement arthroplasty

Explanation
Hemireplacement arthroplasty is the best treatment for a fracture neck femur in a 65-year-old female. This procedure involves replacing the femoral head with a prosthetic implant while leaving the neck of the femur intact. It is a commonly performed surgery for elderly patients as it provides stability and allows for early mobilization. Gleotomy, pop cast, and bone grafting with compression are not appropriate treatments for a fracture neck femur.

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28.

Frieberg's osteochondritis is:
- A.
  
  2nd metatarsal head
- B.
  
  5th metatarsal head
- C.
  
  2nd metatarsal base
- D.
  
  5th metatarsal base
Correct Answer
A. 2nd metatarsal head

Explanation
Frieberg's osteochondritis refers to a condition characterized by the death of bone tissue in the metatarsal head, specifically the 2nd metatarsal head. This condition typically occurs in adolescents and can cause pain, stiffness, and limited range of motion in the affected area. It is believed to be caused by a disruption in blood flow to the bone, leading to necrosis. Treatment options may include rest, pain management, and physical therapy to improve mobility.

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29.

Ring sequestrum is seen in:
- A.
  
  Typhoid osteomyelitis
- B.
  
  Chronic osteomyelitis
- C.
  
  Amputation stump
- D.
  
  Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
Correct Answer
C. Amputation stump

Explanation
Ring sequestrum refers to a circular piece of dead bone that has become detached from the surrounding healthy bone. It is commonly seen in amputation stumps, where the bone has been surgically removed. The process of amputation can disrupt the blood supply to the bone, leading to necrosis and the formation of a ring sequestrum. This is a well-known complication of amputations and can cause pain, delayed healing, and increased risk of infection. Therefore, the presence of a ring sequestrum is indicative of an amputation stump rather than the other conditions listed.

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30.

ARM is contraindicated in:
- A.
  
  Placenta previa
- B.
  
  Hydramnois
- C.
  
  Accidental hemorrhage
- D.
  
  Twins
Correct Answer
B. Hydramnois

Explanation
Hydramnios, or excessive amniotic fluid, is a condition that can cause complications during pregnancy, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malposition. ARM, or artificial rupture of membranes, is a procedure where the amniotic sac is intentionally punctured to induce or augment labor. In the case of hydramnios, there is already an excess of amniotic fluid, and performing ARM can further increase the risk of complications. Therefore, ARM is contraindicated in cases of hydramnios.

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31.

Investigation of choice for recurrent GIST:
- A.
  
  MIBG
- B.
  
  PET
- C.
  
  MRI
- D.
  
  CECT
Correct Answer
B. PET

Explanation
PET (positron emission tomography) is the investigation of choice for recurrent GIST (gastrointestinal stromal tumor). This imaging technique uses a radioactive tracer to detect metabolic activity in the body. GISTs are known to have high glucose metabolism, and PET can accurately identify the location and extent of tumor recurrence. It provides valuable information for treatment planning and monitoring response to therapy. Other imaging modalities like MIBG, MRI, and CECT may have limited sensitivity and specificity for detecting recurrent GIST.

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32.

Most useful drug in enuresis:
- A.
  
  Haloperodol
- B.
  
  Diazepam
- C.
  
  Trimipramine
- D.
  
  Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer
C. Trimipramine

Explanation
Trimipramine is the most useful drug in enuresis because it is a tricyclic antidepressant that has been found to be effective in treating bedwetting in children. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help regulate bladder control. Haloperidol, diazepam, and chlorpromazine are not typically used for the treatment of enuresis, making trimipramine the correct answer.

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33.

Dangerous area of eye:
- A.
  
  Ciliary body
- B.
  
  Optic nerve
- C.
  
  Sclera
- D.
  
  Choroid
Correct Answer
A. Ciliary body

Explanation
The ciliary body is considered a dangerous area of the eye because it contains the ciliary muscle and ciliary processes, which are responsible for producing aqueous humor and controlling the shape of the lens. Any damage or trauma to the ciliary body can lead to complications such as glaucoma or lens dislocation. Additionally, the ciliary body is located close to the iris and the lens, making it a delicate and sensitive area that requires careful handling during surgical procedures or when treating eye conditions.

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34.

Wave length of Nd: Yag laser
- A.
  
  1040 nm
- B.
  
  104 nm
- C.
  
  2040nm
- D.
  
  404 nm
Correct Answer
A. 1040 nm

Explanation
The correct answer is 1040 nm. The wavelength of a Nd:YAG laser is determined by the energy levels of the neodymium ions in the laser crystal. Nd:YAG lasers typically emit light in the near-infrared region, specifically at a wavelength of 1040 nm. This wavelength is commonly used in various applications, including laser cutting, welding, and medical procedures.

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35.

Iris cysts are induced by:
- A.
  
  Atropine
- B.
  
  Pilocarpine
- C.
  
  Phenylephrine
- D.
  
  Ecothiophate
Correct Answer
D. EcothiopHate

Explanation
Ecothiophate is known to induce iris cysts. It is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor that is used in the treatment of glaucoma. One of the side effects of ecothiophate is the formation of iris cysts, which are fluid-filled sacs that develop on the surface of the iris. These cysts can cause visual disturbances and may require surgical intervention for removal. Atropine, pilocarpine, and phenylephrine are not associated with the induction of iris cysts.

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36.

Fish acts as intermediate host in:
- A.
  
  Latum
- B.
  
  Chlonorchis sinensis
- C.
  
  H.diminuta
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Latum

Explanation
Fish acts as an intermediate host in the life cycle of Diphyllobothrium latum, also known as the fish tapeworm. This parasite infects humans when they consume raw or undercooked fish that is infected with the larvae of the tapeworm. Once ingested, the larvae develop into adult tapeworms in the human intestine and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vitamin B12 deficiency. Therefore, the correct answer is latum.

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37.

Negri bodies are located in:
- A.
  
  Astrocytes
- B.
  
  Oligodendroglia
- C.
  
  Neurons
- D.
  
  Microglia
Correct Answer
C. Neurons

Explanation
Negri bodies are located in neurons. Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with the rabies virus. They are typically found in the cytoplasm of infected neurons, particularly in the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum and the pyramidal cells of the hippocampus. These bodies are considered to be pathognomonic for rabies infection and can be used for diagnosis. They are not found in astrocytes, oligodendroglia, or microglia.

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38.

Antenatally the measurement most useful in ultrasound:
- A.
  
  Crown Rump length
- B.
  
  Femur length
- C.
  
  BPD
- D.
  
  None
Correct Answer
A. Crown Rump length

Explanation
Crown Rump length is the most useful measurement in ultrasound during the antenatal period. This measurement is taken from the top of the baby's head (crown) to the bottom of the spine (rump). It is a crucial measurement as it helps determine the gestational age of the fetus and is used to estimate the due date. Crown Rump length is particularly important in the early stages of pregnancy when other measurements may not be as accurate. It provides valuable information about the growth and development of the fetus.

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39.

Para cervical block is associated with danger of:
- A.
  
  Inhibition of labour
- B.
  
  Fetal bradycardia
- C.
  
  Increased loss of blood
- D.
  
  Atony of uterus
Correct Answer
B. Fetal bradycardia

Explanation
Para cervical block is a medical procedure that involves injecting a local anesthetic into the cervix to numb it during certain gynecological procedures. Fetal bradycardia refers to a condition where the baby's heart rate drops below the normal range. This can be a potential danger associated with para cervical block because the use of anesthesia can affect the blood flow and oxygen supply to the baby, leading to a decrease in heart rate. Therefore, fetal bradycardia is a possible risk of para cervical block.

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40.

In deep transverse arrest, the delivery of baby is conducted by all except:
- A.
  
  Caesarian section
- B.
  
  Vaccum extraction
- C.
  
  Kielland forceps
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the above

Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that in deep transverse arrest, the delivery of the baby can be conducted using any of the mentioned methods - caesarian section, vacuum extraction, or Kielland forceps. None of these methods are excluded in this situation.

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41.

Virchow riad does not include:
- A.
  
  Venous stasis
- B.
  
  Venous thrombosis
- C.
  
  Blood hypercoagubility
- D.
  
  Vessel wall injury
Correct Answer
B. Venous thrombosis

Explanation
The Virchow triad consists of three factors that contribute to the development of venous thrombosis: blood hypercoagulability, vessel wall injury, and venous stasis. Venous thrombosis is the actual formation of a blood clot within a vein. Therefore, it is not included in the Virchow triad, as it is the result of the triad's factors rather than being one of the factors itself.

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42.

Triangle of doom bounded by all except:
- A.
  
  Vas deferens
- B.
  
  Testicular vessels
- C.
  
  Cooper ligament
- D.
  
  Reflected peritoneal fold
Correct Answer
C. Cooper ligament

Explanation
The Cooper ligament is not part of the boundaries of the triangle of doom. The triangle of doom is a region in the male pelvis that is clinically important due to its proximity to major blood vessels and nerves. It is bounded by the vas deferens, testicular vessels, and the reflected peritoneal fold. The Cooper ligament, also known as the pectineal ligament, is a ligament in the inguinal region that is not directly related to the triangle of doom.

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43.

Which of the following have maximum post prandial contractility?
- A.
  
  Transverse colon
- B.
  
  Ascending colon
- C.
  
  Descending colon
- D.
  
  Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer
D. Sigmoid colon

Explanation
The sigmoid colon has the highest postprandial contractility compared to the other options listed. This is because the sigmoid colon is the last segment of the large intestine before the rectum, and its main function is to store fecal matter until it is ready to be eliminated. The strong contractions in the sigmoid colon help to propel the fecal matter towards the rectum for elimination.

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44.

Which of the following is not a part of phase-1 reaction?
- A.
  
  Oxidation
- B.
  
  Reduction
- C.
  
  Conjugation
- D.
  
  Hydrolysis
Correct Answer
C. Conjugation

Explanation
Conjugation is not a part of phase-1 reaction. Phase-1 reactions involve the introduction or exposure of a functional group to a drug molecule, such as oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Conjugation, on the other hand, is a part of phase-2 reactions, where the drug molecule is further modified by attaching a large, water-soluble molecule to it, making it more easily excreted from the body.

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45.

Embalming fluid contains all except:
- A.
  
  Glycerine
- B.
  
  Phenol
- C.
  
  Formaldehyde
- D.
  
  Methanol
Correct Answer
A. Glycerine

Explanation
Embalming fluid is a mixture of chemicals used to preserve and disinfect a dead body. It typically contains formaldehyde, phenol, and methanol, which are all toxic substances. Glycerine, on the other hand, is not commonly found in embalming fluid. Glycerine is a clear, odorless liquid that is often used in cosmetics, food, and pharmaceutical products due to its moisturizing properties. It is not typically used in embalming fluid because it does not have the same preserving and disinfecting properties as the other chemicals mentioned.

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46.

A girl on exposure to cold developed cyanosis is predisposed to:
- A.
  
  Sleroderma
- B.
  
  JRA
- C.
  
  SLE
- D.
  
  None
Correct Answer
A. Sleroderma

Explanation
Exposure to cold can trigger vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow to the extremities. In individuals predisposed to Sleroderma, this can lead to further narrowing of blood vessels and impaired circulation, resulting in cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin). Sleroderma is an autoimmune disease that affects the connective tissues, causing hardening and tightening of the skin. Cold exposure can exacerbate the symptoms of Sleroderma, making it the most likely condition in this scenario.

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47.

A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead, drug responsible is:
- A.
  
  Hydroquinine
- B.
  
  Monobenzone metabolite of hydroquinone
- C.
  
  Para tetra butyl catechol
- D.
  
  Para tetra butyl phenol
Correct Answer
D. Para tetra butyl pHenol
48.

Fastest route of absorption of local anesthetic is:
- A.
  
  Intercoastal
- B.
  
  Epidural
- C.
  
  Branchial
- D.
  
  Caudal
Correct Answer
A. Intercoastal

Explanation
The fastest route of absorption of local anesthetic is intercoastal. This is because the intercoastal route allows for direct injection of the anesthetic into the intercostal space, which is the space between the ribs. This allows for rapid diffusion and absorption of the anesthetic into the surrounding tissues and nerves, providing quick and effective pain relief.

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49.

A 65-years-old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The likely diagnosis is:
- A.
  
  Carcinoma of urinary bladder
- B.
  
  Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- C.
  
  Carcinoma prostate
- D.
  
  Cystolithiasis
Correct Answer
A. Carcinoma of urinary bladder

Explanation
Based on the patient's age, gender, and smoking history, as well as the symptom of painless hematuria, the most likely diagnosis is carcinoma of the urinary bladder. Hematuria is a common symptom of bladder cancer, especially in older individuals who smoke. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and carcinoma of the prostate can also cause urinary symptoms, but painless hematuria is more indicative of bladder cancer. Cystolithiasis refers to the presence of stones in the bladder and is less likely to cause painless hematuria.

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50.

Commonest calcifying brain tumour in a child is:
- A.
  
  Medulloblastoma
- B.
  
  Craniopharyngioma
- C.
  
  Glioma
- D.
  
  Meningioma
Correct Answer
B. CraniopHaryngioma

Explanation
Craniopharyngioma is the most common calcifying brain tumor in children. This tumor originates from remnants of embryonic tissue near the pituitary gland. It is typically benign but can cause various symptoms due to its location near critical structures in the brain. Medulloblastoma is another type of brain tumor that primarily affects children, but it does not commonly calcify. Glioma and meningioma are also brain tumors, but they are less common in children compared to craniopharyngioma.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jun 29, 2010

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NBE Medical Practice Test Quiz!

Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with all of the following except:

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Which of the following is not an indication for cholecystectomy?

A 45-years-old gentle man has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

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Coffee bean sign is usually seen in:

Golf hole ureter is seen in:

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FNAC needle size is?

Arthroscopy is contraindicated in:

Madelung's deformity involves the following:

Nail patella syndrome is characterised by following except?

Best treatment for fracture neck femur in a 65-years-old female:

Frieberg's osteochondritis is:

Ring sequestrum is seen in:

ARM is contraindicated in:

Investigation of choice for recurrent GIST:

Most useful drug in enuresis:

Dangerous area of eye:

Wave length of Nd: Yag laser

Iris cysts are induced by:

Fish acts as intermediate host in:

Negri bodies are located in:

Antenatally the measurement most useful in ultrasound:

Para cervical block is associated with danger of:

In deep transverse arrest, the delivery of baby is conducted by all except:

Virchow riad does not include:

Triangle of doom bounded by all except:

Which of the following have maximum post prandial contractility?

Which of the following is not a part of phase-1 reaction?

Embalming fluid contains all except:

A girl on exposure to cold developed cyanosis is predisposed to:

A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead, drug responsible is:

Fastest route of absorption of local anesthetic is:

A 65-years-old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The likely diagnosis is:

Commonest calcifying brain tumour in a child is: