1.
The conducting officer is primarily responsible for:
Correct Answer
D. Conduct of Training/activity
Explanation
The conducting officer is primarily responsible for the conduct of training and activities. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the training or activity is carried out in a proper and organized manner. They are responsible for setting the rules, providing instructions, and overseeing the participants' behavior during the training or activity. This includes maintaining discipline, enforcing safety measures, and ensuring that everyone follows the established guidelines. The conducting officer plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and effective execution of the training or activity.
2.
During live firing, which of the following equipment is not a must?
Correct Answer
D. Compass
Explanation
During live firing, a compass is not a must-have equipment. While identity discs, helmets, and ear protection are essential for safety during live firing exercises, a compass is not directly related to personal safety in this context. A compass is typically used for navigation purposes and may not be necessary during live firing exercises where the focus is on target practice rather than navigation.
3.
TPen guns and firing of illumination should be directed tyowards the sky
and fired at an angle between __ mils and __ mils.
Correct Answer
C. 1170;1530
Explanation
Pen guns and firing of illumination should be directed towards the sky and fired at an angle between 1170 mils and 1530 mils.
4.
Whilst dealing with a weapon stoppage, the firer must direct the barrel of
the weapon __.
Correct Answer
C. Towards the stop-butt
Explanation
When dealing with a weapon stoppage, directing the barrel of the weapon towards the stop-butt is the correct action to take. This means that the firer should point the barrel of the weapon towards the part of the weapon that is designed to stop the bolt or slide from moving, thus preventing the weapon from firing. This action is necessary to safely address the stoppage and ensure that the weapon is not accidentally discharged.
5.
At least __ hours of __ must be allocated the night before any strenuous
activity is to be carried out.
Correct Answer
C. 7;uninterrupted rest
Explanation
Before engaging in any strenuous activity, it is important to allocate at least 7 hours of uninterrupted rest the night before. This ensures that the body gets enough sleep and recovery time to prepare for the physical exertion. Without uninterrupted rest, the body may not be fully refreshed and could be more prone to fatigue or injury during the activity.
6.
During a section level outfield training, a casualty is
incurred. What should be done immediately?
Correct Answer
B. Buddy aid
Explanation
During a section level outfield training, if a casualty is incurred, the immediate action that should be taken is to provide buddy aid. Buddy aid refers to the immediate medical assistance provided by a fellow soldier or comrade to the injured individual. This can include basic first aid such as stopping bleeding, applying pressure to wounds, or stabilizing any fractures or injuries until professional medical help can be obtained. It is important to provide immediate assistance to the casualty to prevent further harm and ensure their well-being.
7.
The SAR21 shall not be fired continuously for more than __ rounds,
regardless of rapid or auto mode.
Correct Answer
B. 270
Explanation
The correct answer is 270. This indicates that the SAR21 should not be fired continuously for more than 270 rounds, whether in rapid or auto mode. This limitation is likely in place to prevent overheating of the weapon and potential malfunctions or damage that could occur from prolonged firing. It also helps to preserve the longevity and reliability of the firearm.
8.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for heat injuries?
Correct Answer
B. Soldier(s) that smoke frequently
Explanation
Smoking does not directly contribute to heat injuries, as it is not a physical risk factor. Heat injuries are primarily caused by environmental factors such as high temperatures, humidity, and physical exertion. While smoking may have negative health effects and decrease overall fitness, it does not specifically increase the risk of heat injuries. Other factors listed, such as accumulated fatigue and lack of experience, can contribute to heat injuries by impairing the soldier's ability to adapt to and cope with the heat stress.
9.
A firer must wait for __ before attempting to unload a misfired round from
the M203.
Correct Answer
C. 30s
Explanation
The firer must wait for 30 seconds before attempting to unload a misfired round from the M203. This waiting period is necessary to ensure that the round has enough time to cool down and reduce the risk of it exploding or causing any harm during the unloading process. Waiting for this specific duration allows for a safer handling of the misfired round.
10.
The minimum engagement distance for HEDP and TP ammo is __m.
Correct Answer
C. 200
Explanation
The minimum engagement distance for HEDP and TP ammo is 200m. This means that these types of ammunition should not be used to engage targets that are closer than 200 meters. This minimum distance is likely set to ensure the safety of the shooter and others in the vicinity, as firing these types of ammunition at close range could result in dangerous and unpredictable effects.
11.
When a soldier is sitting in a vehicle, he will ensure the following,
except __.
Correct Answer
D. Surrender any loaded magazine
Explanation
When a soldier is sitting in a vehicle, he will ensure that the weapon is held between the knees with the barrel facing upwards to prevent any accidental discharge. Additionally, scabbards must be fitted over bayonets to ensure safety and prevent any injuries. The weapon should also be cleared of all ammunition to avoid any accidental firing. However, the soldier should not surrender any loaded magazine as it may be needed for immediate use in case of an emergency or combat situation.
12.
Which of the following is not part of first aid for heat exhaustion?
Correct Answer
B. Remain in face up position
Explanation
Remaining in a face-up position is not part of first aid for heat exhaustion because it does not help in treating the condition. Heat exhaustion is a heat-related illness that occurs when the body overheats and cannot cool down properly. The recommended first aid for heat exhaustion includes removing excess clothing to aid in cooling, rehydrating the body to replace lost fluids, and reducing the body temperature by moving to a cooler environment, applying cool cloths, or using fans. Remaining in a face-up position does not directly address any of these actions and therefore is not part of the first aid treatment for heat exhaustion.
13.
Which of the injury below is NOT potentially life threatening?
Correct Answer
B. Heat Cramp
Explanation
Heat cramp is the correct answer because although it can be painful and uncomfortable, it is not typically life-threatening. Heat cramps are muscle spasms that occur due to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, usually as a result of excessive sweating in hot conditions. While they can be a sign of heat-related illness, they can usually be treated by rehydrating and replenishing electrolytes. Heat stroke and heat exhaustion, on the other hand, are both potentially life-threatening conditions that require immediate medical attention. Heat stroke is a severe form of heat illness that can cause organ damage and even death, while heat exhaustion can progress to heat stroke if not treated promptly.
14.
The normal intake requirement for each soldier should not be less than __
litres per day. If the weather is very hot or when the training is tense, the
water intake should not be less than __ litres per day.
Correct Answer
A. 6;10
Explanation
The normal intake requirement for each soldier should not be less than 6 litres per day. If the weather is very hot or when the training is tense, the water intake should not be less than 10 litres per day.
15.
During weight training, participants must:
Correct Answer
B. Be assisted when handling heavy weights
Explanation
During weight training, participants should be assisted when handling heavy weights to ensure their safety and prevent injuries. This is because heavy weights can put a significant strain on the body, especially if proper form and technique are not maintained. Having someone assist in handling the weights can help distribute the load and provide support, reducing the risk of accidents or overexertion.
16.
How much water should be consumed at least 2hrs before bedtime if there is
physical activity the next day?
Correct Answer
B. 500ml
Explanation
It is recommended to consume at least 500ml of water at least 2 hours before bedtime if there is physical activity the next day. This amount of water is sufficient to hydrate the body and prepare it for the upcoming physical activity. Consuming enough water before bedtime helps in maintaining proper hydration levels and ensures that the body is ready for the physical demands of the next day.
17.
Which of the following are NOT risk factors for heat injuries?
Correct Answer
C. Participating in strenuous exercise the previous week
Explanation
Participating in strenuous exercise the previous week is not a risk factor for heat injuries because heat injuries are typically caused by a combination of high temperatures, high humidity, and prolonged physical activity in those conditions. While participating in strenuous exercise can increase the risk of heat injuries if done in extreme heat, the fact that it occurred the previous week suggests that the person has had enough time to recover and is not currently at risk.
18.
What should be done when lightning is inherent during training?
Correct Answer
B. Avoid staying out in open areas such as beaches, rooftops, hilltops, open fields, the sea or pools
Explanation
When lightning is inherent during training, it is important to avoid staying out in open areas such as beaches, rooftops, hilltops, open fields, the sea, or pools. This is because these areas are more vulnerable to lightning strikes and being in an open area increases the risk of being struck by lightning. Seeking shelter in a safe and enclosed space is crucial to minimize the risk of injury or death from lightning strikes.
19.
For explosive ordnance initiated by non-electric means, the time lapse is
__min.
Correct Answer
D. 30
Explanation
For explosive ordnance initiated by non-electric means, the time lapse is 30 minutes. This means that after the ordnance is initiated, it will take approximately 30 minutes for it to explode.
20.
For explosice ordnance initiated by electrical means, the time lapse is
__min.
Correct Answer
A. 15
Explanation
For explosive ordnance initiated by electrical means, the time lapse is 15 minutes. This means that after the electrical initiation, there is a delay of 15 minutes before the explosive ordnance detonates.
21.
What are the things to note with regard to the handling of smoke grenades
and canisters?
Correct Answer
D. All the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All the above." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are things to note with regard to the handling of smoke grenades and canisters. These include initiating the grenade with the face away from it during activation, throwing the grenade immediately after removing the safety pin, and retrieving a smoke grenade that becomes a blind after 1 minute and returning it to the ammo depot.
22.
For route marches, the mid-day pause will be taken not later than __hrs
and be at least __mins long.
Correct Answer
C. 1330;60
Explanation
For route marches, the mid-day pause will be taken not later than 1330 hours and be at least 60 minutes long. This means that the pause should be taken before 1:30 pm and should last for at least 1 hour.
23.
For continuous strenuous activities, soldiers should drink to quench their
thirst, between __ml of water per hour during the activity.
Correct Answer
A. 500-1000
Explanation
Soldiers engaged in continuous strenuous activities should drink between 500-1000 ml of water per hour to quench their thirst. This range of water intake ensures that soldiers stay hydrated and replenish the fluids lost through sweating and exertion. It is important for soldiers to maintain proper hydration levels to avoid dehydration and perform at their best during physically demanding tasks.
24.
Prior to firing the Matador-HEAT, which of the following must
be done?
i. both front and rear ends of launcher are free from debris
ii. The cover group must be in place
iii. The safety lever must be in ‘S’ (safe) position
iv. Inspect for any visible damage of the launcher
v. The sub-calibre round must be inspected for damage
Correct Answer
C. I, ii, iii, iv
Explanation
Prior to firing the Matador-HEAT, several steps must be taken. Firstly, both the front and rear ends of the launcher must be free from debris to ensure proper functioning. Secondly, the cover group must be in place to protect the launcher. Thirdly, the safety lever must be in the 'S' (safe) position to prevent accidental firing. Lastly, the launcher must be inspected for any visible damage that could affect its performance. Therefore, all of the given options (i, ii, iii, iv) must be done prior to firing the Matador-HEAT.
25.
The rear wall must not be less than __m from the rear of the launcher tube
with no obstacles between the rear of the tube and the wall.
Correct Answer
B. 2.5
Explanation
The rear wall must not be less than 2.5m from the rear of the launcher tube with no obstacles between the rear of the tube and the wall. This distance is necessary to ensure that there is enough space for the launcher tube to operate safely and effectively. A shorter distance could potentially result in damage to the launcher or obstacles interfering with its operation.
26.
To avoid any part of the counter-mass of the Matador striking the gunner,
the body must be angled at least __ degrees to the axis of the weapon.
Correct Answer
B. 45
Explanation
To avoid any part of the counter-mass of the Matador striking the gunner, the body must be angled at least 45 degrees to the axis of the weapon. This angle ensures that the gunner is positioned at a safe distance from the counter-mass, preventing any potential injury or damage. A 45-degree angle provides a balanced position that allows the gunner to maintain control and stability while operating the weapon effectively.
27.
Which types of firing modes are available for the Matador-HEAT?
Correct Answer
B. HEAT&HESH
Explanation
The correct answer is HEAT&HESH. This means that the Matador-HEAT has both High Explosive Anti-Tank (HEAT) and High Explosive Squash Head (HESH) firing modes available. HEAT is designed to penetrate armored vehicles by directing a concentrated jet of high-velocity molten metal towards the target, while HESH is used for anti-structure and anti-personnel purposes by creating a shockwave upon impact.
28.
What is the name of the firing mode of the Matador-HEAT when the probe is
retracted?
Correct Answer
C. HESH
Explanation
HESH stands for High Explosive Squash Head, which is a type of ammunition used in anti-tank weaponry. It is designed to create a shockwave upon impact, causing the target's armor to crack and spall, ultimately disabling the vehicle. In the context of the Matador-HEAT, when the probe is retracted, the firing mode switches to HESH, indicating that the weapon is now using high explosive squash head ammunition.
29.
Bands of what colours can be found on the Matador-HEAT?
Correct Answer
C. Yellow and brown
Explanation
The Matador-HEAT can be found with bands of yellow and brown colors.
30.
The matador sub-calibre training weapon can be identified by a band of
what colour?
Correct Answer
D. Blue
Explanation
The correct answer is Blue. The matador sub-calibre training weapon can be identified by a band of blue color.
31.
Which of the following parts do not belong to the Matador-HEAT?
Correct Answer
B. Iron sight
Explanation
The Matador-HEAT is a type of weapon or firearm, and the parts listed are all components commonly found on firearms. However, the iron sight is not typically a part of the Matador-HEAT. Iron sights are used for aiming and are usually found on rifles or other long-range firearms, whereas the Matador-HEAT is likely a type of handgun or close-quarters weapon that may not have an iron sight.
32.
The safety distance for a thunderflash is __m radius in the open.
Correct Answer
C. 10
Explanation
The safety distance for a thunderflash is 10m radius in the open. This means that anyone should maintain a distance of at least 10 meters from a thunderflash when it is ignited in an open area to ensure their safety. Being within this radius can put individuals at risk of injury or harm due to the loud noise, heat, or debris that may be generated by the thunderflash.
33.
Any non-electric thunderflash that does not activate after ignition must
be retrieved after a lapse of __min.
Correct Answer
A. 1
Explanation
If a non-electric thunderflash does not activate after ignition, it must be retrieved after a lapse of 1 minute.
34.
During weight training, __ will be worn to ensure stability when lifting
weights.
Correct Answer
A. Rubber-soled shoes
Explanation
Rubber-soled shoes will be worn during weight training to ensure stability when lifting weights. The rubber soles provide grip and traction, preventing slipping or sliding while performing exercises. This stability is crucial for maintaining proper form and technique, reducing the risk of injury. Additionally, the cushioning provided by rubber-soled shoes helps absorb impact and reduce strain on the joints, making them a suitable choice for weightlifting activities. Combat boots and sandals do not offer the same level of stability and support, while no footwear can increase the risk of slipping and injuries.
35.
What is the calibre of the ammunition used for the M203GL?
Correct Answer
C. 40mm
Explanation
The correct answer is 40mm because the M203GL is a grenade launcher that is specifically designed to fire 40mm ammunition. This type of ammunition is commonly used in grenade launchers and is known for its effectiveness in providing both lethal and non-lethal force in military operations. The use of 40mm ammunition allows for a versatile range of ammunition options, including high explosive, smoke, and illumination rounds, making it a suitable choice for the M203GL.
36.
What is the minimum engagement distance for the live firing of the M203GL
using HEDP and TP ammunition when behind cover?
Correct Answer
C. 100m
Explanation
The minimum engagement distance for the live firing of the M203GL using HEDP and TP ammunition when behind cover is 100m. This means that when using these types of ammunition with the M203GL, it is recommended to maintain a minimum distance of 100m from the target while taking cover. This distance ensures safety and reduces the risk of any potential harm or damage caused by the firing of the weapon.
37.
Which of the following ammunition is/are used when firing the M203GL?
Correct Answer
D. All the above
Explanation
The M203GL is a grenade launcher that is capable of firing different types of ammunition. The 40mm HEDP (High Explosive Dual Purpose) ammunition is used for engaging both personnel and light armored targets. The 40mm ILLUM (Illuminating) ammunition is used for providing illumination in low-light conditions. The 40mm TP (Target Practice) ammunition is used for training purposes. Therefore, all of the mentioned ammunition types are used when firing the M203GL.
38.
Clearing of rifles will be carried out with the barrel held at a __ degree
upward angle.
Correct Answer
C. 60
Explanation
Clearing of rifles is typically carried out with the barrel held at a 60-degree upward angle. This angle allows for the safe discharge of any remaining ammunition or debris from the barrel without endangering the user or those nearby. Holding the barrel at a 60-degree angle ensures that any discharged material will be directed away from the user and at a safe distance from others.
39.
The safety angle for rifles and SMG in support of troops is __ mils for
day and __ mils for night.
Correct Answer
A. 180;270
Explanation
The safety angle for rifles and SMG in support of troops is 180 mils for day and 270 mils for night. This means that during the day, the rifles and SMG need to be aimed within a 180 mils angle to ensure the safety of the troops. During the night, the safety angle increases to 270 mils, allowing for a wider range of movement to maintain safety.
40.
The distance between each Matador-HEAT/sub-calibre gunner shall not be
less than __m.
Correct Answer
C. 10
Explanation
The correct answer is 10. This distance is specified to ensure the safety of the gunners. Being too close to each other can pose a risk of injury or accidents during firing. By maintaining a minimum distance of 10 meters, there is enough space for each gunner to operate their weapon safely without interfering with each other's movements.
41.
For the M18A1, the primary blast and fragmentation zone is within __m
radius to the front.
Correct Answer
D. 400
Explanation
The primary blast and fragmentation zone for the M18A1 extends up to a radius of 400m to the front. This means that within this distance, the blast and fragmentation effects of the M18A1 can cause significant damage and pose a threat to personnel and equipment. It is important to maintain a safe distance beyond this radius to ensure the safety of individuals and assets.
42.
In the event of a flare surface tripwire MK2 misfir, the shock tube should
be cut __mins after ignition?
Correct Answer
C. 15
Explanation
In the event of a flare surface tripwire MK2 misfire, it is recommended to cut the shock tube 15 minutes after ignition. This time frame allows for a sufficient amount of time for the flare to burn out or for any potential hazards to dissipate. Cutting the shock tube at this specific time helps to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or injuries.
43.
Troops deployed within the distance of __m to __m behind a claymore mine
must take cover in a foxhole or behind cover.
Correct Answer
B. 16;100
Explanation
Troops deployed within the distance of 16 meters to 100 meters behind a claymore mine must take cover in a foxhole or behind cover. This means that if the troops are positioned within this range, they are at risk of being affected by the blast from the claymore mine and should seek protection to minimize the potential damage or injury.
44.
During conduct of range live firing, if the order to cease-fire is given,
what should be done?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
During the conduct of range live firing, if the order to cease-fire is given, it is important to take immediate safety measures. Applying the safety catch ensures that the weapon is not accidentally discharged. Grounding the weapons with the barrel facing the butt further reduces the risk of accidental firing. Additionally, all firers should stand clear of the weapon to ensure their safety. Therefore, all of the above actions should be taken in order to ensure a safe and secure environment after the order to cease-fire is given.
45.
Red flares are used for the following except?
Correct Answer
B. Indicate location of friendly forces
Explanation
Red flares are used for various purposes, including indicating the cessation of fire, halting all tactical movement, and as a distress signal. However, they are not typically used to indicate the location of friendly forces. This is because red flares are highly visible and can be seen by both friendly and enemy forces, potentially compromising the safety and security of friendly troops. Instead, other methods such as radio communication or colored smoke are often used to indicate the location of friendly forces.
46.
Which of the following precautions must be strictly adhered to when
operating the LAD of the SAR21 with naked eyes?
Correct Answer
D. All the above
Explanation
The given correct answer is "All the above". This means that all of the mentioned precautions must be strictly adhered to when operating the LAD of the SAR21 with naked eyes. This includes not shining the laser beam into mirror surfaces, not looking into the LAD baffle unless the unit is switched off or batteries are removed, and ensuring that all personnel are informed and aware of the biological effect of laser radiation.
47.
Under safety pointers for usage of smoke grenade/canisters, which of the
following is/are incorrect?
Correct Answer
C. The minimum distance between each thrown smoke grenade should not be less than 10m
Explanation
The given answer is correct because it states that the minimum distance between each thrown smoke grenade should not be less than 10m. This is an important safety precaution to prevent the grenades from causing unintended harm or injury. By maintaining a minimum distance, the risk of the grenades igniting nearby inflammable materials or causing harm to individuals is reduced.
48.
Which types of training are affected or disrupted by poor weather
conditions?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Poor weather conditions can affect or disrupt all types of training mentioned in the options. During live firing exercises, rain or strong winds can make it unsafe to shoot and can also affect the accuracy of the shots. Physical training exercises such as running or outdoor workouts can be hindered by heavy rain, snow, or extreme temperatures. Field maneuvering exercises, which involve practicing tactical movements and strategies in outdoor settings, can be impacted by poor weather conditions that limit visibility or make the terrain unsafe to navigate. Therefore, all of the mentioned training types can be affected or disrupted by poor weather conditions.
49.
During section live firing assault exercise, when of the following is the
weapon put to ‘safe’ mode?
Correct Answer
B. While moving from to another cover during fire and movement
Explanation
The weapon is put to 'safe' mode while moving from one cover to another during fire and movement to prevent accidental discharge and ensure the safety of the personnel.
50.
Which one of the following is not a correct step in the
sequence of the double feeding immediate action drill for the SAW Ultimax 100
weapon?
Correct Answer
A. Safe, tilt, check
Explanation
The correct step in the sequence of the double feeding immediate action drill for the SAW Ultimax 100 weapon is to use SOG (Supporting Operating Group) to remove jammed cartridges. The other steps mentioned, "Safe, tilt, check" and "Check clear weapon" are correct steps in the sequence.