Security Forces Training Quiz & Questions
- 1.
Range cards are a record of
- A.
Range data
- B.
Firing data
- C.
Call signs
- D.
Training
Correct Answer
B. Firing dataExplanation
Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide essential information about the firing process, such as the target's location, the type of ammunition used, and the adjustments needed for accurate shots. Range cards are crucial for military personnel and marksmen as they help in maintaining accuracy and consistency during shooting exercises or combat situations. By keeping a record of firing data on range cards, individuals can refer back to previous information and make necessary adjustments for future shots, ensuring improved performance and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Each position has two range cards prepared.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A.
M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
- B.
M248, .50 cal, and MK 19
- C.
M9, M203, and MK19
- D.
MK19, .50 cal, and M17
Correct Answer
A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.Explanation
The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information on the distances and adjustments needed to accurately engage targets with a specific weapon. It includes factors such as elevation, windage, and target range. Having a range card for these weapons is crucial for ensuring accurate and effective fire.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A.
Final protective line
- B.
Fire patrol liaison
- C.
First protective line
- D.
Fire profieciency line
Correct Answer
A. Final protective lineExplanation
The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of defense established as a last resort to protect a position or objective. The final protective line is typically a predetermined line where intense defensive fire is directed to repel enemy forces and prevent them from advancing further.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A.
Where you can locate it quickly
- B.
Marginal data area
- C.
Upper right corner
- D.
Part one
Correct Answer
B. Marginal data areaExplanation
The marginal data area on a range card is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or target identification. This can include magnetic north data, which is the direction of the Earth's magnetic field at a specific location. By sketching in magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it can be easily referenced when needed during navigation or target engagement.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A.
Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
- B.
Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.
Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target
- D.
Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
Correct Answer
A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targetsExplanation
On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially serve as targets. This information is important for planning and executing effective firing positions, as it allows you to identify and prioritize potential targets based on their prominence and strategic value. By including these features on the sketch, you can enhance situational awareness and make informed decisions during operations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A.
Dead zone
- B.
Dead area
- C.
Dead space
- D.
Dead spot
Correct Answer
C. Dead spaceExplanation
Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged with grazing fire. It is a term commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire due to natural or man-made obstacles. These obstacles can include terrain features, buildings, or other forms of cover that prevent a direct line of sight for the firing weapon. Dead space poses a challenge for military units as it reduces their ability to effectively engage enemy forces and can provide a tactical advantage to the opposing side.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
Correct Answer
D. 100Explanation
When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at least 100 meters away from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that you have a clear line of sight and can effectively engage targets without any obstructions or obstacles. Starting at a greater distance also allows for better situational awareness and the ability to react to any potential threats in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
- A.
Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.
Engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.
Engage predetermined targets in the ara
- D.
Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces
Correct Answer
A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weaponExplanation
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the objective is to have a clear line of sight and range of fire, allowing you to effectively monitor and engage any potential threats or targets within that area. It emphasizes the importance of being vigilant and ready to engage anyone who poses a threat within your designated field of fire.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures
- B.
Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle
- D.
Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedureExplanation
The forward assist is a feature on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close or if there is resistance in chambering a round. By locking the bolt forward during immediate action procedures, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire without any malfunctions or issues.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A failure to fire
- D.
An operational failure
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, technical problems, or human error. This term is commonly used in industries or processes that involve continuous operations, such as manufacturing or production lines. A stoppage can result in a temporary suspension of work, causing delays and potential loss of productivity. It is important to identify and address stoppages promptly to ensure smooth operations and minimize any negative impact on efficiency and output.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.
Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.
Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.
Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.
Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot
Correct Answer
C. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot -
- 13.
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.
In brand new condition
- B.
Clean, dry and lubricated
- C.
Fully oiled and lubricated
- D.
Clean and properly lubricated
Correct Answer
D. Clean and properly lubricatedExplanation
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent the build-up of dirt, debris, and rust which can affect the performance and lifespan of the weapons. Proper lubrication also reduces friction and wear, allowing the weapons to operate smoothly and efficiently. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, they can be maintained in optimal condition and their functionality can be preserved.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.
M249
- B.
M199
- C.
M855
- D.
M856
Correct Answer
D. M856Explanation
The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the tracer round in the M856 cartridge will stay visible for a longer distance compared to the M196 cartridge. The M856 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine, providing enhanced visibility for the shooter and assisting in tracking the trajectory of the bullet.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
- A.
50 meters
- B.
60 meters
- C.
70 meters
- D.
80 meters
Correct Answer
A. 50 metersExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is designed to accurately hit a target at a maximum distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may significantly decrease.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600 meters
- B.
800 meters
- C.
1,100 meters
- D.
1,800 meters
Correct Answer
D. 1,800 metersExplanation
The M9 pistol has a maximum effective range of 50 meters, but it can potentially fire accurately up to a distance of 1,800 meters. However, at such long ranges, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol significantly decrease, making it impractical for engagements beyond the typical effective range.Rate this question:
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- 18.
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.
Approximate aiming point method
- B.
Adjusted aiming point method
- C.
Advanced aiming point method
- D.
Altitude aiming point method
Correct Answer
B. Adjusted aiming point methodExplanation
The correct answer is the "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use this method to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind, and target size. It allows shooters to compensate for these variables and increase their accuracy when firing the M9.Rate this question:
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- 19.
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator
- B.
Reset the firing pin block
- C.
Chambering
- D.
Releasing slide
Correct Answer
A. Loaded chamber indicatorExplanation
The dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol is to indicate if there is a round in the chamber and to reset the firing pin block. This means that it serves as a safety feature by showing if the chamber is loaded and ready to fire, and also ensures that the firing pin block is properly reset for the next round to be chambered.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.
Aluminum
- B.
Rubber
- C.
Plastic
- D.
Steel
Correct Answer
D. SteelExplanation
CLP or LSA is used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying a cleaner, lubricant, and preservative or a lubricating oil, a protective layer is formed on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into direct contact with the metal and thus reducing the risk of rust formation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4. This means that there are four types of 9 mm ammunition that are used with the M9 pistol.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.
M855
- B.
M856
- C.
M882
- D.
M917
Correct Answer
C. M882Explanation
The standard cartridge used with the M9 is the M882.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?
- A.
MK243 MOD 0
- B.
M917 dummy round
- C.
M882 ball, with cannelure
- D.
M882 ball, without cannelure
Correct Answer
A. MK243 MOD 0Explanation
The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific personnel such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties. This suggests that the MK243 MOD 0 round is specifically designed for these specialized roles and is not commonly issued to all personnel.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
150
- B.
250
- C.
350
- D.
400
Correct Answer
C. 350Explanation
The maximum defective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can effectively engage and hit targets within a radius of 350 meters, making it a suitable weapon for engaging larger groups of enemies.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
30
Correct Answer
D. 30Explanation
The waiting period before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is 30 seconds. This is likely to ensure that any potential hazards or residual pressure within the barrel assembly have dissipated, reducing the risk of injury or damage when unloading the weapon. Waiting for this period allows for a safer and more controlled unloading process.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
- A.
Canopy
- B.
Flangee
- C.
Ogive
- D.
Fin
Correct Answer
C. OgiveExplanation
The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A.
40
- B.
30
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 20Explanation
The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
- A.
Under no circumstances
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergancies
- D.
Last resort
Correct Answer
A. Under no circumstancesExplanation
The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not for the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not interchangeable with the MK19 ammunition. Therefore, it is incorrect to use MK19 ammunition in the M203 under any circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?
- A.
White star cluster
- B.
Ground marker
- C.
Star parachute
- D.
Buckshot
Correct Answer
D. BuckshotExplanation
Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting the target in dense foliage or confined spaces. The pellets spread out, providing a wider coverage area and increasing the likelihood of hitting multiple targets or causing collateral damage in close quarters. This makes buckshot a suitable choice for situations where a wider area needs to be covered or where there is a higher chance of encountering multiple targets.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
- A.
800
- B.
600
- C.
400
- D.
200
Correct Answer
B. 600Explanation
The M249 maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 600 meters when supported by a bipod.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.
Slide assembly
- B.
Receiver assembly
- C.
Triger mechanism assembly
- D.
Return rod and transfer assembly
Correct Answer
B. Receiver assemblyExplanation
The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is responsible for housing and connecting various parts such as the barrel, bolt, trigger mechanism, and slide assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely attached to the firearm.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A remedial action
- D.
An operator error
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by either a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. This means that there is a failure or malfunction in the normal functioning of the weapon or ammunition, resulting in a temporary halt or pause in its operation. It could be due to a variety of reasons such as a jam, misfire, or failure to eject a spent cartridge.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
D. 200Explanation
An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt or pouch that is used to carry and distribute ammunition for firearms. In the case of an M249, which is a light machine gun, the bandoleer is specifically designed to hold 200 rounds of ammunition. This allows the gunner to have a substantial amount of ammunition readily available for sustained fire during combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
- A.
M199 Dummy
- B.
M200 Blank
- C.
M856 Tracer
- D.
M866 Ball
Correct Answer
A. M199 DummyExplanation
During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for these purposes, as it does not contain any explosive or live components. Instead, it is inert and serves to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, allowing for safe and realistic training without the risk of accidental discharge or damage to the firearm.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- B.
100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- C.
100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
- D.
50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
Correct Answer
B. 100 round bandoleer, split-link beltExplanation
The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that is worn over the shoulder or across the chest. The split-link belt refers to the type of belt used to hold the ammunition. In a split-link belt, the links are designed to open and close, allowing for easy insertion and removal of ammunition. This combination of a bandoleer and split-link belt allows for efficient and quick reloading of the M240B during combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
200
- B.
400
- C.
600
- D.
800
Correct Answer
D. 800Explanation
The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that it is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a single target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.Rate this question:
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- 37.
From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A.
Bolt Open
- B.
Bolt CLOSED
- C.
Bolt OENED or CLOSED
- D.
Blide OPENED or CLOSED
Correct Answer
C. Bolt OENED or CLOSEDExplanation
The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt open or bolt closed position. This means that the bolt can be either open or closed when inserting ammunition into the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
- A.
Ejecting
- B.
Extracting
- C.
Cocking
- D.
Firing
Correct Answer
D. FiringExplanation
When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, igniting the propellant and creating a high-pressure gas that propels the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is a crucial step in the cycle of operations as it is responsible for the actual discharge of the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
- A.
Bad ammunnition and incorrect loading
- B.
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire
- C.
Sluggish operations and bad ammunition
- D.
Shooter error and uncontrolled fire
Correct Answer
B. Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fireExplanation
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon's failure to cycle properly, resulting in slow or incomplete firing. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing continuously without the shooter's control, which can be dangerous and lead to excessive ammunition waste. These malfunctions can significantly impact the effectiveness and safety of the M240B during combat operations.Rate this question:
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- 40.
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.
900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.
1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.
1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.
2,000 to 2,500 rounds
Correct Answer
A. 900 to 1,200 roundsExplanation
The M240B should be cleaned after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is because after firing this number of rounds, the weapon is likely to have accumulated enough carbon and fouling that can affect its performance and reliability. Cleaning the weapon ensures that it functions properly and reduces the risk of malfunctions or stoppages during use.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
- A.
M808
- B.
M63
- C.
M62
- D.
M61
Correct Answer
D. M61Explanation
The M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets. This type of ammunition is specifically designed to penetrate and defeat lightly-armored vehicles or structures. It is commonly used in military operations where precision and effectiveness are required against such targets.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.
M240B
- B.
M249
- C.
M780
- D.
MK19
Correct Answer
D. MK19Explanation
The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A.
M1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
Correct Answer
C. M3Explanation
The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is the standard round for the MK19?
- A.
M383
- B.
M430
- C.
M918
- D.
M922
Correct Answer
B. M430Explanation
The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Searching fire is the most often used on
- A.
Level ground only
- B.
Even ground only
- C.
Sloped or hilly ground
- D.
Level or evenly sloping ground
Correct Answer
D. Level or evenly sloping groundExplanation
Searching fire is the most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides a stable and balanced platform for the search team. Level ground allows for easier movement and navigation, ensuring that the search can be conducted efficiently. Evenly sloping ground also offers a similar advantage, as it minimizes the risk of uneven terrain causing accidents or hindering the search process. Therefore, level or evenly sloping ground is preferred for searching fire situations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.
2,000 yards
- B.
2,200 yards
- C.
2,500 yards
- D.
2,750 yards
Correct Answer
A. 2,000 yardsExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets at a distance of up to 2,000 yards.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
- A.
800
- B.
700
- C.
600
- D.
500
Correct Answer
B. 700Explanation
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its starting point. It is important to understand the maximum extent of grazing fire in order to assess the potential danger and take appropriate measures to control and extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
- A.
Direct
- B.
Grazing
- C.
Predetermined
- D.
Distributed and effective
Correct Answer
C. PredeterminedExplanation
Predetermined fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This type of fire involves pre-planned target areas and firing points that are predetermined based on the analysis of the terrain and the expected enemy movements. It allows the gunners to have a strategic advantage by positioning themselves in locations that provide maximum coverage and effectiveness. By having predetermined firing positions, the gunners can quickly engage targets and maintain control over the battlefield.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
- A.
Rapidly and effectively
- B.
Quickly and accurately
- C.
Accurately and timely
- D.
Swiftly and deadly
Correct Answer
B. Quickly and accuratelyExplanation
The use of abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allows the gunner to quickly and accurately aim or adjust fire on the target. This means that the gunner can rapidly respond to changes in the target's position or other factors that may affect the accuracy of the fire. By doing so, the gunner can ensure that the fire is delivered with precision and effectiveness, increasing the chances of hitting the intended target.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
- A.
Sector of fire
- B.
Final protective line
- C.
Principle of direct fire
- D.
Final protective fire
Correct Answer
D. Final protective fireExplanation
Final protective fire is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. It is a concentrated and intense volume of fire that is directed towards the enemy when they breach the defensive lines. The purpose of final protective fire is to disrupt and halt the enemy's advance, providing a last line of defense for the defensive position. It is a crucial element in defensive operations and is intended to inflict maximum damage on the enemy and prevent their further movement.Rate this question:
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Sep 04, 2024Quiz Edited by
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