CDC 3DX5X Book 1 A

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core Task

    • B.

      Duty Competency

    • C.

      Core Competency

    • D.

      Duty Position Task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty Position Task
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duty Position Task. According to AFI 36-2201, Duty Position Tasks are assigned by the supervisor in accordance with the Classifying Military Personnel guidelines. These tasks are specific to the duties and responsibilities of a particular position within the military and are assigned to individuals based on their rank and job role.

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  • 2. 

    Which enlisted training element defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core Task

    • B.

      Duty Competency

    • C.

      Core Competency

    • D.

      Duty Position Task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core Competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It encompasses the essential skills and knowledge required to perform effectively in that field. It is a fundamental element that individuals in that career field must possess to excel in their roles.

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  • 3. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses on the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally. This specialty is responsible for the management, maintenance, and troubleshooting of servers to ensure their optimal performance and security. They are also involved in the implementation of new technologies and the coordination of network operations within the Air Force.

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  • 4. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility that includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions is Client Systems. This role involves providing support to users on the base, assisting with technical issues, and performing maintenance tasks on client systems.

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  • 5. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They handle the transmission of RF signals and ensure the proper functioning of communication systems using RF technology.

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  • 6. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. Spectrum Operations deals with managing and optimizing the use of the electromagnetic spectrum. Cable and Antenna Systems focuses on the installation and maintenance of communication cables and antennas. Radio Frequency Transmission involves the transmission and reception of radio signals.

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  • 7. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring. This includes ensuring that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support both fixed and deployed operations.

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  • 8. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They provide guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development. The AFCFM is responsible for making decisions and implementing policies that impact the career field as a whole, and they work closely with other managers and leaders to ensure the success and growth of the career field.

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  • 9. 

    Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate responsibility and authority for managing and overseeing the career field, including making decisions regarding training requirements. The Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) may have some influence or input in the decision-making process, but the final decision rests with the AFCFM.

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  • 10. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Major Command functional Manager (MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major Command functional Manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and career development course (CDC). This individual is responsible for overseeing the specific career field within the Major Command and has the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who can contribute to the development of these training materials. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the content of the SKT and CDC is accurate and relevant to the career field.

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  • 11. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Base Functional Manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base Functional Manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the functions and operations of a specific base or installation. They ensure that the cyberspace systems and networks are functioning properly and are in compliance with regulations. They also coordinate with other functional managers and personnel to ensure efficient operations and support the mission of the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify Training

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C.

      Conduct climate Training Surveys

    • D.

      Review the Occupational Analysis Report

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field, ensuring that individuals are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to succeed in their roles. The CFETP outlines the required training courses, certifications, and career development opportunities for individuals in the field, helping to guide their professional growth and ensure a well-trained workforce.

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  • 13. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would be referenced for safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment".

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  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-50
    Explanation
    AFOSH standard document 91-50 would be the appropriate reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems." This document likely contains guidelines and regulations specific to the safety measures and protocols related to these systems.

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  • 15. 

    The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information on data processing facilities in the Air Force. It outlines the safety guidelines and procedures that need to be followed in order to ensure the security and well-being of personnel working in these facilities. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-64, individuals can access the necessary information and protocols to maintain a safe working environment in data processing facilities.

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  • 16. 

    From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing Radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing Radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing Radiation
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to the type of radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, leading to minimal heating of the skin. Unlike ionizing radiation, which includes X-rays and gamma rays, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to cause direct damage to deep tissue or organs. Therefore, a person can absorb selectively damaging amounts of nonionizing radiation without experiencing significant skin heating or sensation.

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  • 17. 

    What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The principle that states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This means that risks should only be taken when they are necessary for the success of the mission, and unnecessary risks should be avoided. By prioritizing safety and minimizing unnecessary risks, organizations can ensure the well-being of their personnel and the efficient use of resources.

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  • 18. 

    Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
    Explanation
    This principle of Occupation Risk Management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take risks when the potential benefits outweigh the associated costs. It emphasizes the importance of weighing the risks against the opportunities and benefits in order to maximize the unit's capability. By considering the potential gains and losses, this principle helps in making informed decisions regarding risk acceptance.

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  • 19. 

    Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels suggests that risk assessments should be a normal part of conducting a mission, rather than an additional process. This means that risk assessments should be integrated into the overall planning and execution of operations, ensuring that potential risks are identified and managed effectively. This approach emphasizes the importance of considering risk management throughout all stages of a mission, rather than treating it as a separate or optional step.

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  • 20. 

    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domains we can document the country they're from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the US takes proactive measures to hinder and undermine the adversary's capability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By doing so, the US aims to weaken the adversary's ability to conduct cyber attacks or gather sensitive information, thus protecting its own cyberspace interests and national security.

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  • 21. 

    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network

    • B.

      Tactical data links network

    • C.

      Strategic data control network

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used to gather real-time data and provide control over various processes such as manufacturing, power generation, and distribution. These systems allow operators to remotely monitor and control equipment, collect and analyze data, and make informed decisions to optimize operations and ensure safety.

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  • 22. 

    Which center has overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. It is the central hub where network operations and security are managed, ensuring the integrity and functionality of the Air Force's network infrastructure. The AFNOC coordinates with other centers and units to monitor and protect the network, making it the primary center for network operations in the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site support. It is responsible for implementing technical and physical network changes. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), do not specifically mention providing Tier 3 on-site support or implementing network changes, making the NCC the most appropriate choice.

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  • 24. 

    Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Units (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
    Explanation
    The Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This means that the CCS is responsible for both small-scale and large-scale communication operations, ranging from portable flyaway packages to setting up communication infrastructure in expeditionary air bases. The other options, such as Enterprise Service Units (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), may have different missions but do not specifically mention the range of communication packages provided by the CCS.

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  • 25. 

    Which function or organization was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Units (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). This indicates that the primary function of the ECS is to provide communication support and services for the AETF during deployments and missions. The other options, such as Enterprise Service Units (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Combat Communications Squadron (CCS), do not specifically mention their role in supporting an AETF, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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