V1 Unit 2 CDC's Overall Review
(215).webp "V1 Unit 2 CDCs Overall Review - Quiz")
- 1.
(011) The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as
- A.
Military presence.
- B.
Military jurisdiction.
- C.
Legal precedence.
- D.
Military law.
Correct Answer
B. Military jurisdiction.Explanation
Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own. It grants the military the ability to enforce laws and regulations within their ranks, ensuring discipline and order. This includes the ability to investigate and prosecute military personnel for offenses committed under military law. Military jurisdiction is an essential aspect of maintaining discipline and accountability within the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(011) Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress, and these laws are contained in the
- A.
Bilateral and multilateral agreements.
- B.
Status of Forces Agreements.
- C.
US Constitution.
- D.
US Code.
Correct Answer
D. US Code.Explanation
Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress, and these laws are contained in the US Code. The US Code is a compilation of all the general and permanent federal laws of the United States. It is organized by subject matter and serves as a comprehensive reference for federal laws. Bilateral and multilateral agreements are international agreements between two or more countries, while Status of Forces Agreements specifically pertain to the legal status of military forces stationed in foreign countries. The US Constitution is the supreme law of the land, but it does not contain specific federal statutes.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(011) Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
- A.
Law of Armed Conflict.
- B.
Manual for Courts-Martial Title 10 statutes.
- C.
Status of Forces Agreements.
- D.
Rules of war.
Correct Answer
A. Law of Armed Conflict.Explanation
The correct answer is "Law of Armed Conflict." The question asks which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions. The Law of Armed Conflict, also known as the laws of war, is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts. The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that were established to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities, and they play a significant role in shaping the Law of Armed Conflict.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(011) Military jurisdiction stems from
- A.
International laws.
- B.
Legal sources.
- C.
Senate proclamation.
- D.
Manual for courts-martial.
Correct Answer
A. International laws.Explanation
Military jurisdiction stems from international laws. International laws govern the conduct of nations and their armed forces in relation to each other. These laws define the rights and obligations of states and provide guidelines for military operations. Military jurisdiction is derived from these international laws as they determine the authority and scope of military courts and tribunals. It ensures that military personnel are subject to a separate legal system that is designed to maintain discipline and uphold the principles of international law during times of armed conflict.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(011) Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
- A.
77.
- B.
5.
- C.
2.
- D.
1.
Correct Answer
C. 2.Explanation
Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article outlines the categories of individuals who fall under military jurisdiction, including members of the armed forces, prisoners of war, and individuals serving with or accompanying the armed forces in certain circumstances. It also covers civilians who are subject to military law, such as military contractors and certain civilian employees of the military. This article is important in establishing the scope of military jurisdiction and ensuring that individuals are held accountable under military law when appropriate.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(011) Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ
- A.
Applies everywhere.
- B.
Does not apply on ships.
- C.
Is the sole legal military authority.
- D.
Applies to civilians who commit crimes on base.
Correct Answer
A. Applies everywhere.Explanation
Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ applies everywhere. This means that the UCMJ is not limited to a specific geographical location or jurisdiction. It applies to all members of the military, regardless of where they are stationed or deployed. This ensures that military personnel are subject to the same set of rules and regulations, regardless of their location, to maintain discipline and order within the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(011) If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person
- A.
Must be tried overseas.
- B.
Is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
- C.
Can be tried in the US and vice versa.
- D.
May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority.
Correct Answer
C. Can be tried in the US and vice versa.Explanation
If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried in the US and vice versa. This means that even if the offense was committed overseas, the person can still be brought back to the US for trial under military law. This ensures that individuals who are subject to military law are held accountable for their actions regardless of where the offense took place.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(011) The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are
- A.
1 through 5.
- B.
2 and 5.
- C.
6 through 76.
- D.
77 through 134.
Correct Answer
D. 77 through 134.Explanation
The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are covered in Article 77 through Article 134. These articles outline the various offenses that can be committed by members of the military and the corresponding punishments for each offense. The range of articles from 77 to 134 covers a wide range of offenses, from minor infractions to serious crimes, ensuring that the military justice system is able to effectively maintain discipline and order within the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(012) The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
- A.
Concurrent, current, proprietary.
- B.
Partial, exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.
- C.
Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary.
- D.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral.
Correct Answer
C. Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary.Explanation
The correct answer is exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary. This answer is correct because it accurately lists the types of jurisdiction found on US government installations. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only the federal government has authority over the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the federal and state governments have authority. Partial jurisdiction means that the federal government has authority over some aspects of the installation, while the state government has authority over others. Proprietary jurisdiction means that the federal government has authority over the installation as if it were private property.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(012) The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations
- A.
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction.
- B.
When partial jurisdiction exists.
- C.
Under proprietary jurisdiction.
- D.
Located in overseas areas.
Correct Answer
A. When the government has exclusive jurisdiction.Explanation
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that they have complete control and authority over a particular area or installation. In this case, the federal government has the sole authority to enforce the law on installations when they have exclusive jurisdiction. This means that no other entity, such as state or local governments, have any jurisdiction or control over these installations.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(012) Under concurrent jurisdiction,
- A.
State laws are not enforced.
- B.
The state has property rights only.
- C.
The federal government has no authority.
- D.
Both the state and federal government have authority.
Correct Answer
D. Both the state and federal government have authority.Explanation
Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and regulate certain areas. It allows for a sharing of power between the state and federal governments, where they can both exercise their authority in certain matters. This can often lead to complex legal issues and potential conflicts between the two levels of government.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(013) As a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
- A.
Proprietary government.
- B.
Military government.
- C.
Nationalist regime.
- D.
Military state.
Correct Answer
B. Military government.Explanation
A military government refers to a form of administration in which an occupying power exercises complete control over all executive, legislative, and judicial authority in an occupied territory. This type of government is typically established during times of conflict or occupation, with the military assuming control of the governance of the occupied area. The military government is responsible for maintaining law and order, providing essential services, and making decisions on behalf of the occupied population.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(013) Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
- A.
US Navy.
- B.
US Air Force.
- C.
US Army.
- D.
Coast Guard.
Correct Answer
C. US Army.Explanation
The US Army has the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and managing the day-to-day operations of the military government, including maintaining order and security, providing essential services, and enforcing laws and regulations. The other branches of the military may also play a role in supporting these efforts, but the US Army has the primary responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(013) During qualified martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to
- A.
Enforce civilian laws.
- B.
Apprehend civilians.
- C.
Detain civilians; not apprehend.
- D.
Apply military law to civilians.
Correct Answer
C. Detain civilians; not apprehend.Explanation
During qualified martial law, Security Forces members are granted the authority to detain civilians, but not apprehend them. This means that they can legally hold individuals in custody for a certain period of time without formally arresting them. This distinction allows Security Forces to maintain control and ensure the safety of the civilian population during times of martial law, without necessarily charging or prosecuting them for any specific offense.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(013) Which Article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?
- A.
2.
- B.
5.
- C.
92.
- D.
77-134.
Correct Answer
C. 92.Explanation
Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation issued by a military department, or any lawful order issued by a member of the armed forces, shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, Article 92 establishes the legal basis for Security Forces members to issue orders and ensures compliance with those orders.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(013) In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to
- A.
Act in an official law enforcement capacity off-base.
- B.
Apprehend civilians for on-base offenses.
- C.
Release military offenders to supervisors.
- D.
Detain civilians for on-base offenses.
Correct Answer
D. Detain civilians for on-base offenses.Explanation
Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to detain civilians for on-base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense on a military base, the Security Forces have the authority to detain them. This helps to preserve law and order on the base by allowing the Security Forces to take action against individuals who break the law while on the premises.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(013) Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?
- A.
Right to bear arms.
- B.
Title 10, US Code.
- C.
Self-defense right.
- D.
Citizens right of arrest.
Correct Answer
D. Citizens right of arrest.Explanation
The correct answer is the Citizens right of arrest. This right allows individuals to apprehend someone who is committing a crime in their presence. It is a legal authority granted to citizens to help maintain public order and safety. This right is not the same as the right to bear arms or self-defense, which are unrelated to apprehending a person committing a crime.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(014) What is a posse comitatis?
- A.
A division of the sheriff’s office where the personnel enforced local town laws.
- B.
A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals.
- C.
An additional duty for Army troops.
- D.
A band of US Marshals who gathered together to find criminals.
Correct Answer
B. A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals.Explanation
A posse comitatis is a summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals. This means that when the sheriff needs assistance in maintaining order or apprehending criminals, he can call upon the community to form a posse comitatis. This practice was common in early American law enforcement and was a way to mobilize local citizens to support law enforcement efforts.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(015) The military working dog’s greatest advantage to Security Forces is their
- A.
Keen sight and ability to track individuals.
- B.
Presence deters airborne insertion of enemy troops.
- C.
Ability to deter aggressive acts against entry controllers.
- D.
Superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility.
Correct Answer
D. Superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility.Explanation
The military working dog's superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility, is their greatest advantage to Security Forces. This means that they are highly skilled in detecting and locating individuals, even in situations where visibility is limited. This can be extremely valuable in military operations where identifying and tracking individuals is crucial for security and safety.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(015) Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
- A.
Search occupied buildings only.
- B.
Bite and hold multiple suspects only.
- C.
Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds.
- D.
Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building.
Correct Answer
D. Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building.Explanation
Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This implies that in these specific situations, the dogs are allowed to be off-leash. The other options, such as searching occupied buildings only or dispersing crowds, do not involve the need for the dogs to be off-leash. Therefore, the correct answer is that military working dogs can be off-leash when they have to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(015) Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must
- A.
Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.
- B.
Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite.
- C.
Place the military working dog on a long leash.
- D.
Have the dog bark three times.
Correct Answer
A. Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.Explanation
Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for the safety of anyone inside the building, as it alerts them that a trained dog is about to be released and they should take appropriate precautions. It also ensures that the dog is not released unexpectedly, which could lead to confusion or potential harm to the dog or the handler. By giving a verbal warning, the handler is able to communicate their intentions clearly and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(015) What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?
- A.
SIT and STAY.
- B.
OUT and SIT.
- C.
OUT and HEEL.
- D.
BITE and OFF.
Correct Answer
C. OUT and HEEL.Explanation
The military working dog must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL" prior to being assigned to operational duties. These commands are essential for the dog to demonstrate control and obedience. "OUT" command is used to make the dog release its bite and let go of any object or person it has bitten. "HEEL" command is used to make the dog walk closely by the handler's side.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(016) Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit’s
- A.
Security and air base defense.
- B.
Air base defense VIP security.
- C.
Law enforcement and air base defense.
- D.
Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations.
Correct Answer
D. Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations.Explanation
Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in law enforcement, security, and contingency operations. This means that they can assist in tasks such as patrolling, detecting explosives or drugs, conducting searches, and providing support during emergencies or unpredictable situations. These teams are trained to work in various environments and can contribute to maintaining safety and order in different operational scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(016) Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
- A.
Psychological deterrent.
- B.
Mobile flightline force multiplier.
- C.
Base defense detection capability.
- D.
Replacement for base sensor systems.
Correct Answer
A. Psychological deterrent.Explanation
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. This means that their presence alone can discourage potential criminals or threats from engaging in illegal or dangerous activities. The dogs' training and capabilities create a sense of fear or caution in individuals, making them think twice before taking any harmful actions. This psychological deterrent factor makes the use of military working dog teams a valuable asset in law enforcement operations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(016) The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is
- A.
Its ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.
- B.
Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.
- C.
The team’s ability to work alone.
- D.
Its quick response capability.
Correct Answer
B. Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.Explanation
The military working dog's greatest advantage during security operations is its detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. This means that even in situations where there is thick fog or heavy rain, the dog is able to use its senses to detect threats or suspicious activities that may be hidden from human sight. This ability enhances the effectiveness of the dog in carrying out security operations, as it can still perform its duties even in challenging weather conditions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(016) Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?
- A.
50 yards.
- B.
75 yards.
- C.
100 yards.
- D.
250 yards.
Correct Answer
D. 250 yards.Explanation
The military working dog can detect intruders at a distance of 250 yards under ideal conditions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(016) What is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
- A.
Protect members of the apprehension team.
- B.
Disperse the remaining crowd off-leash.
- C.
Bite and hold demonstrators.
- D.
Apprehend rioters.
Correct Answer
A. Protect members of the apprehension team.Explanation
The military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators is to protect members of the apprehension team. This means that the dogs are trained to provide security and ensure the safety of the team members while they are carrying out their duties. The dogs may be used to deter potential threats, provide assistance in subduing individuals if necessary, and help maintain control of the situation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(017) During peacetime operations within a US territory, do not confuse Rules of Engagement with
- A.
Law of Armed Conflict.
- B.
Rules for Use of Force.
- C.
Operational Orders.
- D.
Operations Plans.
Correct Answer
B. Rules for Use of Force.Explanation
During peacetime operations within a US territory, the correct answer is "Rules for Use of Force." This is because during peacetime, the Rules for Use of Force dictate the guidelines and limitations for the use of force by military personnel. The Law of Armed Conflict is applicable during times of armed conflict, while Operational Orders and Operations Plans are specific plans and instructions for military operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(018) What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?
- A.
Necessity and authority.
- B.
Immediacy and controlled.
- C.
Proportionality and necessity.
- D.
Proportionality and immediacy.
Correct Answer
C. Proportionality and necessity.Explanation
The elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) are proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive, taking into account the threat faced. Necessity means that the use of force is necessary to protect oneself or others from imminent harm. These elements ensure that self-defense is carried out in a measured and justified manner, balancing the need for protection with the avoidance of unnecessary harm.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(018) Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be
- A.
Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude.
- B.
Of the maximum duration under rules of war.
- C.
Of the appropriate nonlethal means.
- D.
Used only in defense of foreign nationals.
Correct Answer
A. Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude.Explanation
The correct answer is "of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude." This means that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportional and not excessive. It should be of a level that is reasonable and necessary to address the threat, taking into consideration factors such as the intensity, duration, and magnitude of the hostile act. This ensures that the response is not overly aggressive or disproportionate to the situation at hand.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(019) A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a
- A.
Consent search.
- B.
Search warrant.
- C.
Command authority.
- D.
Search authorization.
Correct Answer
D. Search authorization.Explanation
A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a search authorization. This document grants permission for the authorized person to perform the search and ensures that it is conducted within the boundaries of the law and with proper authority. It is different from a search warrant, which is issued by a civilian court and is typically required for searches conducted outside of military jurisdiction.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(019) Search authorizations are based upon
- A.
Free search rules.
- B.
Probable cause.
- C.
Evidentiary value.
- D.
Trial admissibility.
Correct Answer
B. Probable cause.Explanation
Search authorizations are based upon probable cause. Probable cause refers to the reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the search will uncover evidence related to that crime. It is a legal standard that must be met in order to obtain a search warrant or authorization. The authorities need to provide sufficient evidence or information to convince a judge that there is a fair probability that a search will lead to the discovery of evidence. This ensures that searches are not conducted without a valid reason and protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(019) Who cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure?
- A.
Group commander.
- B.
Wing commander.
- C.
Squadron commanders.
- D.
Chief, Security Forces (CSF) and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
Correct Answer
D. Chief, Security Forces (CSF) and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).Explanation
The Chief, Security Forces (CSF) and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure because their roles are primarily focused on legal and administrative matters rather than operational activities such as search and seizure. The authority to authorize search and seizure is typically given to individuals who are directly involved in law enforcement or military operations, such as group commanders, wing commanders, and squadron commanders.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(019) Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
- A.
Air Force installation commanders.
- B.
Joint rear area commanders.
- C.
Staff Judge Advocate.
- D.
US magistrate.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force installation commanders.Explanation
Air Force installation commanders are authorized to issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries. They have the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety and security of their personnel and resources, even when operating in foreign territories. These commanders have the knowledge and expertise to assess the situation and determine the appropriate search procedures that need to be carried out. They work closely with other military and legal authorities to ensure that the searches are conducted in accordance with applicable laws and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(020) What form is used to document a search authorization?
- A.
AF Form 52.
- B.
AF Form 1364.
- C.
AF Form 1176.
- D.
Search Affidavit.
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 1176.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1176. This form is used to document a search authorization. It is a standard form used by the Air Force to record information related to searches, including the basis for the search, the location to be searched, and any items or evidence that are expected to be found. This form is important for ensuring that searches are conducted legally and in accordance with proper procedures.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(020) The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is called
- A.
Seizure.
- B.
Searching.
- C.
Search affidavit.
- D.
Obtaining evidence.
Correct Answer
A. Seizure.Explanation
The correct answer is seizure. In courts-martial, when authorities take items for evidence, it is referred to as seizure. This term is used to describe the act of confiscating or taking possession of something, typically by legal authority. It implies that the items are being taken with the intention of using them as evidence in the court-martial proceedings.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(020) A search affidavit of “probable cause” supports your request for
- A.
Authorization to search and seize.
- B.
Consent to search.
- C.
Plain view seizure.
- D.
Authority to courts-martial.
Correct Answer
A. Authorization to search and seize.Explanation
The correct answer is "authorization to search and seize." A search affidavit of "probable cause" is a legal document that provides justification for requesting permission to conduct a search and seizure. This affidavit outlines the evidence and facts that establish a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the items to be seized are related to the crime. Therefore, the search affidavit supports the request for authorization to search and seize.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(021) Government property requires search authorization when the
- A.
Property was seized illegally.
- B.
Property was originally seized as abandoned.
- C.
Person to whom the property was issued gives search consent.
- D.
Person issued the property has the reasonable expectation of privacy.
Correct Answer
D. Person issued the property has the reasonable expectation of privacy.Explanation
When a person is issued government property, they have a reasonable expectation of privacy. This means that they can expect that their personal belongings and any information contained within the property will not be searched or accessed without their consent or a valid search warrant. This expectation of privacy is based on the understanding that individuals have a right to privacy in their personal belongings, even if those belongings are owned by the government.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(021) If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, “Okay if I have to,” what are you actions?
- A.
Restate the request and ask for a ‘yes or no’ answer.
- B.
Accept the answer and begin searching.
- C.
Have the person sign the AF Form 1176.
- D.
Search only for property on the person.
Correct Answer
A. Restate the request and ask for a ‘yes or no’ answer.Explanation
If a person responds with "Okay if I have to" when asked for consent to search, it indicates uncertainty or reluctance. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to restate the request and ask for a clear "yes or no" answer. This ensures that the person fully understands the request and provides informed consent for the search.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(021) Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of
- A.
Speeding violations.
- B.
Lawful apprehensions.
- C.
Dress and appearance violations.
- D.
The execution of a search authorization.
Correct Answer
B. Lawful apprehensions.Explanation
Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of lawful apprehensions. This means that law enforcement officers can conduct a search without needing to establish reasonable belief or suspicion of criminal activity if they are making a lawful arrest. This exception to the probable cause requirement allows officers to search for weapons or evidence that may be relevant to the arrest.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(022) Which is not the purpose of an interview?
- A.
Gain information.
- B.
Establish the facts of a crime.
- C.
Develop background information.
- D.
Interrogate witnesses to gain information.
Correct Answer
D. Interrogate witnesses to gain information.Explanation
The purpose of an interview is to gain information, establish the facts of a crime, and develop background information. However, interrogating witnesses to gain information is not the purpose of an interview. Interrogation typically refers to a more intense and aggressive questioning technique, whereas an interview is a more casual and conversational approach to gathering information.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(022) What are the common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
- A.
Bias toward police, resentment, and fear of involvement.
- B.
Inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement.
- C.
Fear of involvement and bias toward police.
- D.
Resentment and inconvenience.
Correct Answer
B. Inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement.Explanation
The common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk are inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement. This means that the interviewee may not want to participate in the interview because it is inconvenient for them, they hold resentment towards the situation or the interviewer, and they have a fear of getting involved in the process. These factors can contribute to their reluctance to openly communicate and share information during the interview.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(022) If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview,
- A.
Have a second investigator present.
- B.
Reschedule when a same-sex SF member is available.
- C.
The investigator should continue the interview alone.
- D.
Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable.
Correct Answer
A. Have a second investigator present.Explanation
If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview, it is important to have a second investigator present. This ensures that there is another person present to observe and document the interview, providing an additional layer of accountability and protection for both the interviewer and the witness. Having a second investigator present helps to maintain a fair and unbiased interview process, as well as to ensure that all information and statements are accurately recorded.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(022) What are the interviewee classifications?
- A.
Victim, witness, and caller.
- B.
Suspect, victim, witness, and caller.
- C.
Complainant, victim, suspect, and caller.
- D.
Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect.
Correct Answer
D. Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect.Explanation
The correct answer is witness, victim, complainant, and suspect. These classifications represent different roles that individuals can have in an interview. A witness is someone who has information about a crime or incident. A victim is someone who has been harmed or affected by the crime. A complainant is someone who has reported the crime or incident to the authorities. A suspect is someone who is believed to have committed the crime. These classifications help to categorize individuals based on their involvement in the situation being investigated.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(022) Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
- A.
Suspects.
- B.
Victims.
- C.
Witnesses.
- D.
Prosecutors.
Correct Answer
B. Victims.Explanation
In an investigation, victims are typically interviewed to develop facts. They provide crucial information about the incident, such as what happened, when and where it occurred, and any potential suspects involved. Victims can provide firsthand accounts of the events, including details that may not be known to other individuals involved. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather essential evidence and establish a timeline of events, helping them to uncover the truth and potentially identify and apprehend the perpetrators.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(023) The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and
- A.
Conducting.
- B.
Witnessing.
- C.
Investigating.
- D.
Interrogating.
Correct Answer
A. Conducting.Explanation
The four-step interview process consists of preparing, planning, conducting, and closing. Conducting refers to the actual act of carrying out the interview, where the interviewer asks questions and gathers information from the interviewee. This step involves active listening, probing for more details, and maintaining a professional and respectful demeanor. It is the main part of the interview where the interviewer interacts with the interviewee to gather the necessary information and assess their suitability for the position or purpose of the interview.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(023) Determining a time and place to interview is the first step in
- A.
Closing.
- B.
Planning.
- C.
Preparation.
- D.
Conducting.
Correct Answer
B. Planning.Explanation
In order to conduct an interview, the first step is to plan and determine a suitable time and place for the interview. This involves considering the availability of both the interviewer and the interviewee, as well as selecting a location that is convenient for both parties. Planning helps ensure that the interview can be conducted smoothly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(023) What approach is primarily used to interrogate?
- A.
Bad cop, good cop.
- B.
Indirect.
- C.
Alternating.
- D.
Direct.
Correct Answer
D. Direct.Explanation
The correct answer is "Direct." This approach is primarily used to interrogate because it involves questioning the individual directly and obtaining information without any intermediaries or manipulation tactics. It aims to get straightforward and immediate answers from the person being interrogated.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(023) Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and
- A.
Location of incident.
- B.
Other investigators.
- C.
Time of interview.
- D.
Room number.
Correct Answer
C. Time of interview.Explanation
Investigative notes should contain important details such as the case number, date, person interviewed, and location of the incident. These details help in organizing and referencing the information gathered during the investigation. Including the time of the interview in the notes is crucial as it provides a chronological order of events and helps establish the sequence of interviews conducted. This allows investigators to analyze the information more effectively and draw accurate conclusions.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(024) Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with
- A.
The Chief, Security Forces.
- B.
The staff judge advocate.
- C.
Witnesses to the case.
- D.
The victim and suspect.
Correct Answer
B. The staff judge advocate.Explanation
Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with the staff judge advocate because they are responsible for providing legal advice and guidance throughout the investigation and trial process. The staff judge advocate will assist the investigators in understanding the legal aspects of the case, ensuring that the investigation is conducted in accordance with the law, and preparing for any potential legal challenges that may arise during the trial. They will also help in determining the admissibility of evidence and providing legal support to the investigators throughout the pretrial phase.Rate this question:
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Jul 15, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Sep 27, 2012Quiz Created by
Ernestleeburns
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