1.
(213) Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide
the grid square into
Correct Answer
B. Tenths.
Explanation
Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, the grid square is divided into tenths. This means that each side of the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts, resulting in a more precise and detailed grid coordinate system.
2.
(214) After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?
Correct Answer
A. Nearest military installation.
Explanation
After a nuclear accident, the initial response base responsibility falls on the nearest military installation. This is because military installations are equipped with trained personnel, resources, and protocols to handle emergencies and provide immediate response and assistance in such situations. They have the capability to mobilize quickly and coordinate efforts with other relevant agencies to ensure the safety and security of the affected area and its inhabitants.
3.
(214) Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon
accident?
Correct Answer
C. Disaster control group.
Explanation
In the event of a nuclear weapon accident, the disaster control group is responsible for assuming overall command and control. They are specifically trained and equipped to handle such emergencies and have the necessary expertise to coordinate the response efforts effectively. The on-scene fire chief, on-scene commander, and initial base response force may play important roles in the response, but the disaster control group is ultimately responsible for taking charge of the situation.
4.
(215) What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?
Correct Answer
B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind.
Explanation
The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is determined based on the potential spread of the agents in the air. In this case, the correct answer is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a cordon of 2000 feet should be established in the direction of the wind, as well as perpendicular to the wind direction. This is to ensure that individuals are kept at a safe distance from the accident site, minimizing their exposure to the biological agents. The additional distance of one and one-half miles downwind may be necessary to account for the potential dispersion of the agents in the air.
5.
(216) What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft
accident?
Correct Answer
B. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.
Explanation
If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and appropriate information to the media. It is important to avoid providing potentially incorrect or misleading information and leave it to the experts to handle media inquiries.
6.
(216) What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base
accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?
Correct Answer
A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film.
Explanation
If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action would be to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This ensures that the situation is handled by professionals who have the authority and expertise to handle classified materials and enforce the necessary legal measures. Using physical force or physically detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and is not the recommended course of action. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may not be legally permissible and may not guarantee the proper handling of the classified material.
7.
(217) One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to
Correct Answer
B. Prevent or minimize loss of life and property.
Explanation
The primary goal of the Air Force in high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize loss of life and property. This means that their focus is on protecting and preserving the lives of individuals and ensuring the safety of property. This goal prioritizes the well-being and security of both civilians and military personnel involved in the situation. By taking proactive measures and implementing effective strategies, the Air Force aims to reduce the potential harm and damage that may occur in these high-risk scenarios.
8.
(217) What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?
Correct Answer
A. Trained negotiators.
Explanation
Trained negotiators are used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. They are skilled in effective communication, conflict resolution, and de-escalation techniques. Negotiators aim to establish a rapport with the individuals involved and work towards finding a mutually agreeable solution, avoiding the use of force or violence. This approach prioritizes the safety of all parties involved and aims to prevent unnecessary harm or casualties. SWAT teams, special operations, and assault weapons may be utilized in extreme cases when negotiations fail or there is an immediate threat to public safety.
9.
(218) Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?
Correct Answer
B. Security forces personnel.
Explanation
Security forces personnel are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. They are trained to handle emergency situations and maintain security on the installation. Their role includes assessing the situation, taking appropriate action, and coordinating with other units if necessary. The installation commander, squadron commander, and unit commander may be involved in the incident response process, but the initial response is the responsibility of security forces personnel.
10.
(218) Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?
Correct Answer
C. Negotiation teams.
Explanation
Negotiation teams are allowed inside the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene. This implies that negotiation teams have the necessary expertise and authority to handle situations that may arise during a high-risk scene. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and the base chaplain may have important roles in other aspects of the scene, but they are not specifically mentioned as being allowed inside the inner perimeter.
11.
(219) A base entry point check is
Correct Answer
A. An examination.
Explanation
A base entry point check refers to the process of examining or evaluating a particular entry point. It does not involve conducting a warrant search, consent search, or a probable cause search. Instead, it focuses on assessing and analyzing the entry point in question, which could be a physical location or a system, to ensure its security and suitability for access or use.
12.
(219) At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point
checks?
Correct Answer
B. Two.
Explanation
Two security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks. This ensures that there is adequate manpower to effectively inspect and monitor the entry point for any potential security threats or breaches. Having two members also allows for better coordination and communication during the process, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the checks.
13.
(219) What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point
check?
Correct Answer
A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual.
Explanation
If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the installation. Seizing the contraband and refusing entry to the installation may also be necessary, but the immediate priority is to stop the check and take appropriate action against the individual involved. Continuing to search the vehicle for more contraband or impounding the vehicle may be done after the initial steps have been taken.
14.
(219) What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?
Correct Answer
C. Object size.
Explanation
The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the size of the object. The size of the object will determine the approach and techniques used to search the vehicle effectively.
15.
(219) How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?
Correct Answer
D. Thoroughly and systematically.
Explanation
When conducting a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do so thoroughly and systematically. This means thoroughly checking all areas of the vehicle and conducting a systematic search in a methodical manner. By doing this, you can ensure that no potential evidence or items of interest are missed during the search.
16.
(220) Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?
Correct Answer
D. Strip and grid.
Explanation
Strip and grid search method is normally used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and systematically searching each strip or grid one by one. It is an efficient method as it ensures that the entire area is covered and reduces the chances of missing any potential targets. Additionally, it allows search teams to work in a coordinated manner and ensures that no areas are overlooked.
17.
(221) While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?
Correct Answer
A. Enter to prevent injury or damage.
Explanation
When on patrol and hearing cries for help from a building, the appropriate action to take is to enter the building in order to prevent injury or damage. This is because the cries for help indicate that there may be a situation where someone's safety or property is at risk, and as a patrol officer, it is your duty to respond and take action to prevent harm or damage from occurring.
18.
(222) When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to
Correct Answer
D. Keep the scene in its original state.
Explanation
When arriving at a crime scene, it is important to keep the scene in its original state. This is because any changes or disturbances to the scene can potentially compromise the integrity of the evidence present. By preserving the scene in its original state, investigators can ensure that all evidence is properly collected, documented, and analyzed, increasing the chances of successfully solving the crime.
19.
(222) When should you begin taking crime scene notes?
Correct Answer
A. As soon as dispatched.
Explanation
As soon as dispatched is the correct answer because crime scene notes should be started as soon as possible to ensure that all relevant information is documented accurately and in a timely manner. Waiting for a checklist item to be completed or for all evidence to be collected may result in crucial details being missed or forgotten. Similarly, waiting for an investigator to relieve you from the scene may cause unnecessary delays in recording important observations and observations. Starting crime scene notes as soon as dispatched allows for a comprehensive and immediate documentation of the crime scene.
20.
(222) What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when
securing the scene?
Correct Answer
D. Record its original position in your notes.
Explanation
If evidence is moved prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, it is important to record its original position in your notes. This is crucial because the original position of the evidence may provide important information or context for the investigation. By documenting the original position, investigators can ensure that the evidence is properly analyzed and interpreted, even if it has been moved. Disregarding the evidence completely or just wiping your prints off would not be appropriate actions, and informing the shift supervisor may be necessary but it is not the most immediate and relevant step to take in this situation.
21.
(222) What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not
available?
Correct Answer
C. pHotograpH all evidence before anything is moved or touched.
Explanation
When audio-visual personnel are not available to photograph crime scenes, it is important to follow the basic rule of photographing all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This ensures that the original state of the evidence is documented and preserved, providing an accurate representation of the crime scene.
22.
(223) What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?
Correct Answer
D. Circumstantial.
Explanation
Circumstantial evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense. Unlike direct evidence which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on inferences and deductions to establish a link between the person and the offense. It includes facts and circumstances that, when considered together, create a reasonable belief that the person is guilty. This type of evidence is often used when there is no direct evidence available, but the circumstances surrounding the offense strongly suggest the person's involvement.
23.
(223) What document establishes the rules of evidence?
Correct Answer
A. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM).
Explanation
The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) is the document that establishes the rules of evidence. It provides guidance and instructions on how evidence should be presented and evaluated in military courts. The MCM is a comprehensive resource that outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during legal proceedings within the military justice system. It ensures fairness and consistency in the handling of evidence and helps to uphold the principles of justice in military courts.
24.
(223) What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts and statements?
Correct Answer
D. Jencks Act.
Explanation
The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires individuals to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements. This law is specifically designed to ensure that the government provides defendants in criminal cases with any statements made by government witnesses that are related to their testimony. The purpose of this law is to promote fairness and transparency in the criminal justice system by allowing defendants access to potentially exculpatory evidence. Therefore, the Jencks Act is the correct answer to the question.
25.
(224) An item of evidence is considered fragile if
Correct Answer
D. Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value.
Explanation
The correct answer is "conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value." This means that if certain circumstances or factors are present, they could potentially damage or diminish the value of the evidence. This could include environmental conditions, improper handling, contamination, or any other factors that may compromise the integrity or reliability of the evidence in question.
26.
(225) How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?
Correct Answer
D. pHysical injury or emotional disturbance.
Explanation
Abuse is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance in the context of family violence. This means that abuse can manifest in both physical forms, such as hitting or causing physical harm, as well as emotional forms, such as manipulation, threats, or verbal abuse. It is important to recognize that abuse is not limited to physical injury alone, but also includes the emotional impact it has on the victim.
27.
(225) Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?
Correct Answer
A. Emotional maltreatment.
Explanation
Emotional maltreatment is the most difficult type of child abuse to identify because it often leaves no physical evidence and can be more subtle and covert in nature. Unlike physical abuse or sexual maltreatment, emotional abuse involves the persistent emotional neglect, rejection, or verbal attacks on a child, which can cause long-lasting psychological harm. It can be challenging to detect as it may not leave visible bruises or scars, and the effects may not be immediately apparent. Additionally, emotional abuse can occur behind closed doors, making it harder for others to witness or intervene.
28.
(226) Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a
domestic violence situation before knocking?
Correct Answer
C. 15 to 20.
Explanation
In a domestic violence situation, it is important to approach the situation cautiously and prioritize safety. Stopping and listening at the door for 15 to 20 seconds before knocking allows you to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to enter. This time frame gives you a chance to listen for any signs of violence or distress inside the room, helping you make an informed decision on how to proceed.
29.
(226) What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door
after you knock and it appears quiet?
Correct Answer
A. Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.
Explanation
If no one answers the door and it appears quiet in a domestic violence situation, the first action to take is to contact the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address. This is important to ensure that the correct location is being addressed and to gather more information about the situation.
30.
(227) Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse?
Correct Answer
C. Family advocacy officer.
Explanation
The correct answer is Family advocacy officer. In cases of child or spouse abuse, the family advocacy officer must be notified. They are responsible for providing support and resources to victims of abuse and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to protect the well-being of the individuals involved. The unit commander, first sergeant, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations may also be involved in addressing the incident, but the family advocacy officer is specifically designated to handle these types of cases.
31.
(228) You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because
Correct Answer
A. A pHysical assault has not occurred.
Explanation
The correct answer is "a physical assault has not occurred." This is because a verbal dispute refers to a situation where individuals are engaged in a conflict or argument using words, without any physical violence or assault taking place. The other options do not necessarily define a verbal dispute, as an individual being difficult to reason with, the absence of nearby objects or weapons, or the disputants being intoxicated may not necessarily indicate a verbal dispute.