Venil's Pathology Finals Review Questions 1

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Questions: 30 | Attempts: 111

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Venils Pathology Finals Review Questions 1 - Quiz

This is the first of a series of online quizzes made by Venil Bolambao for students taking General Pathology in order to gauge their knowledge in preparation for the upcoming finals exam.
There are 30 questions, all MCQ. Good luck and God bless!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All of the following are gene & gene products that regulate apoptosis, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Bcl-2

    • B.

      P53

    • C.

      Bcr-abl

    • D.

      Bax

    Correct Answer
    C. Bcr-abl
    Explanation
    bcl-2: inhibits apoptosis
    p53: facilitates apoptosis
    bax: also facilitates apoptosis

    bcr-abl: found in chronic myelogenous leukemia

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    All are true statements about arterial thrombi, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      They are dark red in color with a higher concentration of red cells.

    • B.

      Formed in areas of active blood flow.

    • C.

      Forms layers called Lines of Zahn.

    • D.

      May eventually liquefy & disappear.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are dark red in color with a higher concentration of red cells.
    Explanation
    Choice A refers to thrombus of venous origin.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is what type of Immune Dysfunction?

    • A.

      Type IV --- Cell Mediated Hypersensitivity

    • B.

      Type III --- Immune Complex Hypersensitivity

    • C.

      Type II --- Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity

    • D.

      Type I --- Anaphylactic Hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    B. Type III --- Immune Complex Hypersensitivity
    Explanation
    type I: hay fever, allergic rhinitis, hives, anaphylactic shock
    type II: hemolytic disease of the newborn, Grave's disease, Goodpasture syndrome
    type III: SLE, serum sickness, Arthus reaction
    type IV: tuberculin reaction, contact dermatitis

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  • 4. 

    All true statements of Mitral Valve Diseases, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      The mitral valve is the valve most commonly affected in carcinoid syndrome.

    • B.

      Mitral valve prolapse is the most frequent valvular lesion.

    • C.

      Upon ausculatation, a systolic murmur with midsystolic click can be heard in patients with MVP.

    • D.

      Mitral stenosis & insufficiency is most usually due to rheumatic heart diseases.

    Correct Answer
    A. The mitral valve is the valve most commonly affected in carcinoid syndrome.
    Explanation
    The most common valve involved in carcinoid syndrome is the tricuspid valve.

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  • 5. 

    Which statement best describes Silicosis?

    • A.

      It is caused by inhalation of carbon dust & causes no harm.

    • B.

      It is marked by coal macules surrounding the bronchioles.

    • C.

      It predisposes a person to have bronchogenic carcinoma or mesothelioma.

    • D.

      It is associated with increased susceptibility with tuberculosis.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is associated with increased susceptibility with tuberculosis.
    Explanation
    Choice A: Anthracosis
    Choice B: Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis
    Choice C: Asbestosis

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    This is also known as giant hypertrophic gastritis.

    • A.

      Menetrier's Disease

    • B.

      Meniere's Disease

    • C.

      Loeffler's Eosinophilia

    • D.

      Whipple's Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Menetrier's Disease
    Explanation
    Menetrier's disease, also known as giant hypertrophic gastritis, is a rare condition characterized by the enlargement of the stomach lining. It is caused by an overgrowth of mucus-producing cells in the stomach, leading to excessive production of gastric acid and protein loss. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and swelling in the legs. Menetrier's disease is typically diagnosed through an endoscopy and biopsy. Treatment options include medications to reduce stomach acid production and in severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the affected portion of the stomach.

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  • 7. 

    Correct statements about liver cirrhosis, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Alcoholic cirrhosis is otherwise known as Laennec's cirrhosis.

    • B.

      Primary biliary cirrhosis is due to long-standing extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

    • C.

      There is decreased ceruloplasmin in cirrhosis caused by Wilson's disease.

    • D.

      Postnecrotic cirrhosis is usually due to a previous hepatitis B infection.

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary biliary cirrhosis is due to long-standing extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
    Explanation
    Primary Biliary Cirrhosis is due to an autoimmune cause. (+) anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
    Described in choice B is secondary biliary cirrhosis.

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  • 8. 

    All are true statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      There is a rubbery, nodular enlargement of the gland especially in the periurethral and peripheral zones.

    • B.

      It is the most common cause of urinary tract obstruction in males.

    • C.

      It has no relation to prostatic cancer, but the two can coexist.

    • D.

      May be caused by an age-related increase in estrogen.

    Correct Answer
    A. There is a rubbery, nodular enlargement of the gland especially in the periurethral and peripHeral zones.
    Explanation
    BPH is more common in the periurethral and transitional zones. Peripheral zone is usual site for prostatic adenocarcinoma.

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  • 9. 

    What is the most common site for endometriosis?

    • A.

      Rectum

    • B.

      Round ligament

    • C.

      Fallopian tube

    • D.

      Ovary

    Correct Answer
    D. Ovary
    Explanation
    Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it. The most common site for endometriosis is the ovary. This is because the tissue can implant and grow on the surface of the ovaries, causing pain and potentially leading to the formation of cysts. It is important to note that endometriosis can also affect other areas such as the fallopian tubes, rectum, and round ligament, but the ovary is the most commonly affected site.

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  • 10. 

    True of Hypothyroidism, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Myxedema is more common in men than women.

    • B.

      TSH-receptor blocking antibodies are positive in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

    • C.

      The patient may have hair loss, coarse & brittle hair and scant axillary/pubic hair.

    • D.

      Cretinism may be due to transplacental transfer of antithyroid antibodies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Myxedema is more common in men than women.
    Explanation
    Myxedema is more common in women.

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  • 11. 

    This condition is characterized by multiple vascular tumors and cysts that are widely scattered througout the organ systems.

    • A.

      Port-wine stain

    • B.

      Granuloma pyogenicum

    • C.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome

    • D.

      Von Hippel Lindau disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Von Hippel Lindau disease
    Explanation
    Choice A: purple-red area on the face/neck
    choice B: vascular pedunculated lesion often developing after trauma
    choice C: hemangiomas in the eyes, meninges causing seizure, retinal detachment, MR

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  • 12. 

    This condition is characterized by a triad of precocious puberty, fibrous dysplasia and cafe-au-lait spots on skin, occuring often in young girls.

    • A.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta

    • B.

      McCune-Albright Syndrome

    • C.

      Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

    • D.

      Osgood-Schlatter Disease

    Correct Answer
    B. McCune-Albright Syndrome
    Explanation
    Choice A: mutliple fractures even with small trauma
    choice C: avascular necrosis of the femur
    choice D: avascualr necrosis of the tibial tubercle

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Etiological agent for an encephalitis that is characterized by degeneration and necrosis of anterior horn cells of the spinal cord.

    • A.

      Cytomegalovirus

    • B.

      Polio virus

    • C.

      Arboviruses (Western/Eastern Equine)

    • D.

      Rabies

    Correct Answer
    B. Polio virus
    Explanation
    Polio virus is the correct answer because it is known to cause an encephalitis that specifically targets the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, resulting in their degeneration and necrosis. This virus primarily affects the motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness, paralysis, and potentially permanent disability. Other options like cytomegalovirus, arboviruses, and rabies do not specifically target the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord in the same way that polio virus does.

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  • 14. 

    Which one of the following renal tubular changes revealed by kidney biopsy repersents irreversible cellular injury?

    • A.

      Fatty change

    • B.

      Nuclear pyknosis

    • C.

      Formation of myelin figures

    • D.

      Swelling of organelles

    Correct Answer
    B. Nuclear pyknosis
    Explanation
    Nuclear pyknosis represents irreversible cellular injury in renal tubular changes revealed by kidney biopsy. Pyknosis is the condensation and shrinking of the cell nucleus, which is a sign of irreversible damage and cell death. This change indicates severe injury to the renal tubular cells and suggests that the cells are beyond repair. Fatty change, formation of myelin figures, and swelling of organelles may indicate reversible cellular injury or early stages of damage.

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  • 15. 

    An autosmal recessive defect in neutrophils characterized by albinism, cranial & peripheral neuropathy. 

    • A.

      Chronic granulomatous disease

    • B.

      Leukocyte-adhesion deficiency type 1 & 2

    • C.

      Myeloperoxidase deficiency

    • D.

      Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    D. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
    Explanation
    Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is the correct answer because it is an autosomal recessive defect in neutrophils that is characterized by albinism, cranial, and peripheral neuropathy. This syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the immune system and causes abnormalities in the function and structure of certain cells, including neutrophils. These abnormalities lead to recurrent infections, abnormal pigmentation of the skin and hair, and neurological problems.

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  • 16. 

    A genetic condition characterized by deficiency in sphingomyelinase causing resultant accumulation of sphingomyelin.

    • A.

      Gaucher Disease

    • B.

      Hurler Disease

    • C.

      Niemann-Pick Disease

    • D.

      Von Gierke Disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Niemann-Pick Disease
    Explanation
    choice A: accumulation of glucocerebroside
    choice B: accumulation of heparan and dermatan sulfate
    choice D: accumulation of glycogen

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    True of Wegener's granulomatosis, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Characterized by necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis of the medium to large-sized vessels.

    • B.

      Commonly affects the respiratory tract & kidneys.

    • C.

      Associated with C-ANCAs.

    • D.

      There is fibrinoid necrosis, early infiltration of neutrophils and fibrosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Characterized by necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis of the medium to large-sized vessels.
    Explanation
    This disease affects small to medium-sized vessels.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    All are true statements about disorders of primary hemostasis, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      They are mainly defects of platelet plug formation.

    • B.

      Characterized by bleeding from small capillaries resulting in mucocutaneous bleeding.

    • C.

      Often marked by prolonged bleeding time and normal APTT and PT.

    • D.

      Von Willebrand's disease is a defect in platelet aggregation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Von Willebrand's disease is a defect in platelet aggregation.
    Explanation
    vWD and Bernard-Soulier disease are defects in platelet adhedsion.
    Glanzmann Thrombasthenia is a defect in platelet aggregation.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Fungi that causes lung infection but may eventually involve the CNS. Its characteristic encapsulated appearance can be seen via India ink preparations.

    • A.

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • B.

      Actinomyces

    • C.

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • D.

      Coccidioides immitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptococcus neoformans
    Explanation
    Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause lung infection, which can eventually spread to the central nervous system (CNS). It is known for its characteristic encapsulated appearance, which can be observed through India ink preparations. This encapsulation helps protect the fungus from the host's immune system. Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic pathogen that primarily affects immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS. It can cause a range of symptoms, including pneumonia, meningitis, and encephalitis. Treatment typically involves antifungal medications.

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  • 20. 

    This is characterized by multiple adenomatous polyps with tumors of the central nervous system.

    • A.

      Gardner syndrome

    • B.

      Turcot syndrome

    • C.

      Peutz-Jegher syndrome

    • D.

      Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

    Correct Answer
    B. Turcot syndrome
    Explanation
    Gardner: polyps + osteomas + soft tissue tumors
    Peutz-Jegher: polyps + melanomatic accumulations in the lips, hands, genitalia
    FAP: numerous polyps, 100% malignant potential

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    True of Renal Cell Carcinoma, EXCEPT: 

    • A.

      It is the most common renal malignancy and is more common in men.

    • B.

      It is characterized by polygonal clear cells and notorious for hematogenous dissemination.

    • C.

      A triad of flank pain, hematuria and palpable mass. The most common of the 3 is flank pain.

    • D.

      There is secondary polycythemia due to increased erythropoietin production.

    Correct Answer
    C. A triad of flank pain, hematuria and palpable mass. The most common of the 3 is flank pain.
    Explanation
    hematuria is the most common sign.

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  • 22. 

    What is Peyronie disease?

    • A.

      It is an anomaly wherein the urethral meatus opens on the ventral face of the penis.

    • B.

      It is an abnormally tight foreskin that is difficult or impossible to retract over the glans penis.

    • C.

      It is the subcutaneous fibrosis of the dorsum of the penis.

    • D.

      Inflammation of the glans penis.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is the subcutaneous fibrosis of the dorsum of the penis.
    Explanation
    A: hypospadias
    B: Phimosis
    D: Balanitis

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    True of a Hydatidiform mole, EXCEPT: 

    • A.

      It grossly resembles a bunch of grapes. Microscopically, the villi are hydropic.

    • B.

      Marked by a significant increase in B-HCG and rapid increase in uterine size.

    • C.

      An embryo is present in a complete mole.

    • D.

      There are 69 chromosomes in a partial mole.

    Correct Answer
    C. An embryo is present in a complete mole.
    Explanation
    an embryo is present in a partial h-mole, not in a complete mole.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    True of tumors of the breast, EXCEPT: 

    • A.

      Paget's Disease is a large, bulky mass with variable malignancy with ulceration of overlying skin.

    • B.

      Fibroadenoma is the most common breast tumor in women younger than 25 years old.

    • C.

      Intraductal papilloma is most commonly manifested as serous or bloody discharge.

    • D.

      Medullary carcinoma of the breast is characterized by scanty stroma, fleshy consistency and lymphocytic infiltrate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Paget's Disease is a large, bulky mass with variable malignancy with ulceration of overlying skin.
    Explanation
    What is described is Phyllodes tumor. Paget's disease is the eczematoid lesion/tumor in nipples & areola.

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  • 25. 

    This characterized by presence of pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and hyperparathyroidism. It is linked to mutations to the ret oncogene. 

    • A.

      Wermer Syndrome

    • B.

      Sipple Syndrome

    • C.

      Men IIb

    • D.

      Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Sipple Syndrome
    Explanation
    A: MEN 1: 3 ps --> pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas
    C: pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, neuromas/ganglioneuromas
    D: gastrinoma

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  • 26. 

    A chronic, inflammatory condition characterized by erythematous papules & plaques with characteristic silvery scaling, lesions which are sharply demarcated. 

    • A.

      Pemphigus vulgaris

    • B.

      Erythema multiforme

    • C.

      Psoriasis

    • D.

      Lichen planus

    Correct Answer
    C. Psoriasis
    Explanation
    Psoriasis is a chronic, inflammatory condition that is characterized by erythematous papules and plaques with characteristic silvery scaling. The lesions in psoriasis are sharply demarcated, meaning that they have clear boundaries. This distinguishes psoriasis from other conditions such as pemphigus vulgaris, erythema multiforme, and lichen planus, which may have different clinical presentations and do not typically exhibit the same silvery scaling and sharply demarcated lesions.

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  • 27. 

    True of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, EXCEPT: 

    • A.

      It is the most common & most severe of the muscular dystrophies which occur exclusively in males.

    • B.

      It begins with weakness in the proximal muscles of the extremities.

    • C.

      There is increased serum CK and deficiency in dystrophin.

    • D.

      This exhibits an autosomal dominant inheritance.

    Correct Answer
    D. This exhibits an autosomal dominant inheritance.
    Explanation
    it is an X-linked recessive inheritance.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    This CNS tumor is characterized by a whorled pattern of concentrically arranged spindle cells and laminated calcified psammoma bodies. 

    • A.

      Oligodendroglioma

    • B.

      Ependymoma

    • C.

      Glioblastoma multiforme

    • D.

      Meningioma

    Correct Answer
    D. Meningioma
    Explanation
    Meningioma is a CNS tumor that is characterized by a whorled pattern of concentrically arranged spindle cells and laminated calcified psammoma bodies. Psammoma bodies are small, round collections of calcium that are commonly found in meningiomas. This characteristic histological appearance helps differentiate meningioma from other CNS tumors such as oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, and glioblastoma multiforme.

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  • 29. 

    This is an estrogen-secreting tumor which often causes precocious puberty. 

    • A.

      Thecoma

    • B.

      Fibroma

    • C.

      Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

    • D.

      Granulosa cell tumor

    Correct Answer
    D. Granulosa cell tumor
    Explanation
    A granulosa cell tumor is an estrogen-secreting tumor that commonly presents with precocious puberty. This tumor arises from the granulosa cells of the ovary and can cause an increase in estrogen levels, leading to early development of secondary sexual characteristics. It is a type of sex cord-stromal tumor and is the most common type of ovarian tumor associated with precocious puberty. Thecoma, fibroma, and Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors are other types of ovarian tumors but are not typically associated with precocious puberty.

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  • 30. 

    The Philiadelphia chromosome represents a remnant of chromosome 22 with the addition of a small segment of chromosome 9. This is typically found in what blood disorder?

    • A.

      CLL

    • B.

      CML

    • C.

      ALL

    • D.

      AML

    Correct Answer
    B. CML
    Explanation
    The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality that is typically found in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). It is characterized by the presence of a remnant of chromosome 22, known as the Philadelphia chromosome, with the addition of a small segment of chromosome 9. This abnormality leads to the production of an abnormal protein that causes the overgrowth of white blood cells in the bone marrow, leading to the development of CML.

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