Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 1 Part 2
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RF Transmissions Journeyman CDCs. Split up 20 questions at a time.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The RED designation is used for equipment processing
- A.
Unencrypted unclassified information.
- B.
Clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
Encrypted classified information.
- D.
Clear-text classified information
Correct Answer
D. Clear-text classified informationExplanation
The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the information is unencrypted but still classified, indicating that it is sensitive and should only be accessed by authorized individuals. The use of clear-text means that the information is not encrypted or encoded in any way, making it more vulnerable to unauthorized access or interception.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class I.Explanation
Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class that has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this sensitivity range.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?
- A.
Working at a bench.
- B.
Walking across carpet.
- C.
Walking across a vinyl floor.
- D.
Picking up a common plastic bag.
Correct Answer
B. Walking across carpet.Explanation
Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because carpets tend to build up a large amount of static electricity due to friction. As a person walks across the carpet, their body picks up electrons from the carpet, creating a charge imbalance. This charge imbalance results in a high voltage difference, or electrostatic voltage. Walking across a vinyl floor or picking up a common plastic bag may also generate some electrostatic voltage, but it would be lower compared to walking across carpet. Working at a bench is not mentioned to generate any electrostatic voltage in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
- A.
Secondary.
- B.
Radiated.
- C.
Plasma.
- D.
Source.
Correct Answer
D. Source.Explanation
The correct answer is "Source." The question asks about the distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. The term "source" refers to the origin or point of emission of the electromagnetic pulse. It is the initial location where the pulse is generated before it propagates through the atmosphere. The other options, such as secondary, radiated, and plasma, do not specifically refer to the region produced by the interactions between weapon products and the earth's atmosphere.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?
- A.
Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- B.
Plasma; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- C.
Secondary; cables and ground wires.
- D.
Source; cables and ground wires.
Correct Answer
A. Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.Explanation
The correct answer is "Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns." In an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) event, the radiated source region produces a primarily vertical electric field. This means that the electric field is oriented in a vertical direction. As a result, antennas and bore site feedhorns, which are components used in communication systems, are affected by this vertical electric field. The EMP can induce high voltages and currents in these structures, potentially damaging or disrupting their functionality.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?
- A.
Cables should be of unshielded construction.
- B.
Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
- C.
Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
- D.
All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.
Correct Answer
C. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.Explanation
Sensitive equipment needs to be protected from electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). Shielding is a method used to reduce or eliminate these interferences. By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it is protected from external electromagnetic and radio frequency signals that can disrupt its proper functioning. This ensures that the equipment operates reliably and without any interference from external sources.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
- A.
Enemy jamming.
- B.
Internal interference.
- C.
Radio receiver trouble.
- D.
Unintentional interference.
Correct Answer
A. Enemy jamming.Explanation
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This means that regardless of the antenna's location, the interfering signal remains consistently strong, suggesting intentional interference by an adversary. This is in contrast to internal interference, which would typically fluctuate depending on the antenna's position. Radio receiver trouble would cause issues with the reception itself, rather than a consistent interfering signal. Unintentional interference would likely vary in strength as the antenna is moved.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
- A.
Slow tuning receiver.
- B.
Rapid tuning receiver.
- C.
Slow tuning transmitter.
- D.
Rapid tuning transmitter.
Correct Answer
D. Rapid tuning transmitter.Explanation
A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. Spurious emissions refer to unwanted signals that are unintentionally generated by a transmitter and can interfere with other electronic equipment or communication systems. The rapid tuning capability of a transmitter allows it to quickly change frequencies, but this can also result in the generation of unwanted emissions. In contrast, a slow tuning transmitter would take more time to change frequencies and is less likely to produce as many spurious emissions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
- A.
Relays.
- B.
Lighting.
- C.
Power line.
- D.
Switching equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Power line.Explanation
Power line noise is a type of man-made noise that occurs due to voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges. These electrical phenomena can cause disruptions in the power line, leading to noise interference. Relays, lighting, and switching equipment can also produce noise, but in this case, the correct answer is power line as it specifically refers to the noise caused by these electrical disturbances in the power transmission lines.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
- A.
The operator.
- B.
Joint Spectrum Center.
- C.
Installation spectrum manager.
- D.
Federal Communications Commission.
Correct Answer
B. Joint Spectrum Center.Explanation
The Joint Spectrum Center is responsible for providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are tasked with managing the electromagnetic spectrum and ensuring that communication systems do not interfere with each other. By resolving any interference issues, the Joint Spectrum Center helps maintain efficient and effective communication for the unified commanders in their operations.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?
- A.
Information security officer (IAO).
- B.
Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
- C.
Information security program manager (ISPM).
- D.
Communications and information system officer (CSO).
Correct Answer
B. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).Explanation
The Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO) is responsible for handling emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation. EMSEC involves protecting communication systems from compromising emanations that could be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals. The WIAO is responsible for implementing measures to ensure the security of these systems and preventing any potential threats or vulnerabilities. They work closely with other personnel, such as the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Communications and Information System Officer (CSO), to address EMSEC concerns and maintain the overall security of the installation's communication infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
Distance and angles.
- B.
Distance and separation.
- C.
Induction and grounding.
- D.
Induction and impedance.
Correct Answer
A. Distance and angles.Explanation
The ability to minimize compromising emanations in a conductor is influenced by the distance and angles. By increasing the distance between conductors, the electromagnetic fields generated by each conductor will have less interaction, reducing the chances of compromising emanations. Additionally, the angles at which the conductors are placed can also affect the electromagnetic fields and their interactions. Properly positioning the conductors at specific angles can help minimize compromising emanations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?
- A.
Nickel cadmium.
- B.
Carbon zinc.
- C.
Lead-acid.
- D.
Lithium.
Correct Answer
A. Nickel cadmium.Explanation
Nickel cadmium (NiCd) is the secondary cell that is prone to the memory effect. The memory effect is a phenomenon where the battery "remembers" the shorter discharge cycles and loses its capacity to deliver full charge. This occurs when the battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, which can result in reduced battery capacity and overall performance. Carbon zinc, lead-acid, and lithium batteries do not exhibit the memory effect to the same extent as NiCd batteries.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
A. Sag.Explanation
A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. A sag occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault or disturbance in the power system. This can result in a decrease in voltage that lasts for a short duration, typically a few cycles. Sags can cause equipment to malfunction or shut down, and they are a common issue in power systems.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
D. Blackout.Explanation
A blackout refers to a complete loss of utility power, meaning that there is no electricity available. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in the power supply but do not result in a total loss of power.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
C. Noise.Explanation
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "noise." Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signal that disrupts the normal flow of power in a system. EMI and RFI are specific types of noise that can interfere with the functioning of electronic devices, causing disruptions or malfunctions. Therefore, noise is the correct answer as it encompasses these forms of interference.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer
A. Passive standby.Explanation
Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected equipment to run directly from the utility power source, with the UPS only activating in the event of a power outage. It provides basic protection against power interruptions but does not provide any voltage regulation or conditioning.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer
B. Line interactive.Explanation
A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is designed to provide protection against power fluctuations and voltage spikes, ensuring a stable and reliable power supply to the connected devices. It actively regulates the input power without switching to battery power unless there is a complete power outage, making it an efficient and cost-effective solution for protecting sensitive equipment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
- A.
Single.
- B.
Double.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
C. Three.Explanation
Industrial and commercial applications typically require three phases of generator power. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical energy, allowing for higher power capacity and smoother operation of equipment. Single-phase power is commonly used for residential applications, while double and four-phase power configurations are less common and typically only used in specialized situations.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jun 02, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 30, 2017Quiz Created by
Scott
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