Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4

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  • 1/80 Questions

    Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?

    • A. Flight chief.
    • B. Operations officer.
    • C. Flight commander.
    • D. Defense force commander.
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About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 4 quiz assesses knowledge in integrated defense and risk management within Air Force operations. It covers legal reviews, incident reporting, and nuclear safety, focusing on critical skills for military personnel.

Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences?

    • A. Driver.

    • B. Vehicle commander.

    • C. Convoy commander.

    • D. Crew-serve weapon gunner.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Convoy commander.
    Explanation
    The convoy commander is responsible for signaling the start of movement after a long halt. They are in charge of coordinating and leading the convoy, ensuring that all vehicles are ready to proceed and that it is safe to do so. The convoy commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the organization and order of the convoy, making them the appropriate person to signal for rollout.

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  • 3. 

    What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

    • A. Fading in elevation.

    • B. Increase in elevation.

    • C. Decrease in elevation.

    • D. No change in elevation

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Increase in elevation.
    Explanation
    An index contour line is a thicker, darker contour line that is labeled with the elevation it represents. When going from a lower to an upper contour line, it means that you are moving to a higher elevation. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Increase in elevation.

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  • 4. 

    What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?

    • A. ID Threat Risk.

    • B. ID Principles of Risk.

    • C. ID Risk Management.

    • D. ID Principles of Critical.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. ID Risk Management.
    Explanation
    Integrated Defense (ID) refers to a comprehensive approach to defense that involves the coordination and integration of various defense measures and strategies. In order to achieve this, a systematic and structured process of risk management is employed. This process involves identifying potential risks and threats, assessing their likelihood and potential impact, implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks, and continuously monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of the defense measures. By using ID Risk Management, organizations can ensure a holistic and coordinated approach to defense that addresses all potential vulnerabilities and threats.

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  • 5. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

    • A. accident.

    • B. incident.

    • C. mistake.

    • D. mishap.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. accident.
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component implies an unplanned or unintended event, which aligns with the definition of an accident. Accidents refer to unexpected and unintentional events that result in damage or harm. In this context, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be considered an accident as it involves the unintentional release or disposal of a dangerous weapon or component.

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  • 6. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 6

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be evacuated within a reasonable timeframe. Evacuating them within 24 hours ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • A. Standoff.

    • B. Penetration.

    • C. Chemical, biological.

    • D. Information operation.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Penetration.
    Explanation
    An insider threat refers to a situation where someone within an organization poses a risk to its security or assets. In the context of this question, a penetration attack involves an unauthorized individual gaining access to a system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This type of attack can certainly be carried out by an insider who has knowledge of the system's weaknesses and may exploit them for personal gain or malicious intent.

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  • 8. 

    What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

    • A. Anticipate.

    • B. Deter.

    • C. Detect.

    • D. Warn.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Detect.
    Explanation
    The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect any potential threats or intrusions. These systems are put in place to identify and recognize any suspicious activity or unauthorized access in order to prevent any harm or damage. They act as a means of surveillance and monitoring, allowing for quick response and intervention if any potential threats are detected.

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  • 9. 

    How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

    • a. At least one.

    • B. At least two.

    • C. At least three.

    • D. At least four.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. At least three.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is c. At least three, which means that a minimum of three RAM measures from FPCON are required daily.

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  • 10. 

    To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

    • A. senators.

    • B. governors.

    • C. ambassador.

    • d. congressman.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. ambassador.
    Explanation
    To avoid adverse effects on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US ambassador. The ambassador represents the US government in foreign countries and is responsible for maintaining diplomatic relations. By addressing sovereignty issues through the ambassador, commanders ensure that the concerns are properly communicated and dealt with at the diplomatic level, which is crucial for maintaining good relations with the host country and avoiding any negative impact on operations. Senators, governors, and congressmen are not directly involved in diplomatic matters and may not have the authority or expertise to address sovereignty issues effectively.

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  • 11. 

    What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

    • A. Greater distance.

    • B. Shorter distance.

    • C. Equal distance.

    • D. Real distance.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Greater distance.
    Explanation
    The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This is because when the ground slopes upward, it creates an optical illusion that makes objects appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as they may perceive the distance to be greater than it actually is.

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  • 12. 

    What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

    • A. Direct.

    • B. Indirect.

    • c. Sustained.

    • d. Suppressive.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Direct.
    Explanation
    Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This means that they directly engage the enemy or threat with their weapons or firepower. Direct fire control measures involve engaging the enemy with accurate and immediate fire, allowing the defenders to neutralize the threat and protect themselves or their assets. This can include actions such as engaging the enemy with small arms fire, grenades, or other direct-fire weapons.

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  • 13. 

    What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

    • A. Throw hand grenades.

    • B. Look for the enemy and return fire.

    • C. Immediately return fire and assault the enemy.

    • D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Immediately return fire and take a covered position. When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to defend oneself by returning fire and finding a safe place to take cover. This will help protect oneself from further harm and give time to assess the situation and plan the next steps.

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  • 14. 

    When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?

    • A. Daily.

    • B. Weekly.

    • c. Bi-monthly.

    • D. Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items on a daily basis to ensure that all equipment is in proper working order and ready for use. Performing daily checks allows SF to identify any issues or malfunctions promptly and take necessary actions to rectify them. Regular checks also help maintain the overall effectiveness and readiness of the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond to any potential threats or emergencies.

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  • 15. 

    In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

    • A. Roll.

    • B. High crawl.

    • C. Low crawl.

    • D. Spider crawl.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. High crawl.
    Explanation
    In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required and the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is used. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the upper body raised off the ground and supporting the movement with the knees and elbows. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to enemy fire. The roll technique involves rolling on the ground and is not suitable for situations where speed is required. The low crawl technique involves moving forward with the entire body close to the ground, and the spider crawl technique is not a recognized movement technique in tactical deployment situations.

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  • 16. 

    Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely?

    • A. Traveling.

    • b. Wedge formation.

    • C. Traveling overwatch.

    • D. Bounding overwatch.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Traveling.
    Explanation
    When speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely, the technique that is commonly used is traveling. Traveling involves moving quickly and efficiently, without taking cover or maintaining constant vigilance for potential threats. This technique is suitable when there is a low risk of encountering enemies and the focus is on reaching the destination as quickly as possible. It allows for rapid movement and can be useful in situations where time is of the essence and there is a need to cover a large distance.

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  • 17. 

    To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

    • A. Safe.

    • B. Fire.

    • c. Semi.

    • D. Burst.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Safe.
    Explanation
    To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is important to ensure the rifle is in a safe position. Placing the rifle on "Safe" ensures that the firearm is not loaded and the trigger is disabled, minimizing the risk of accidental discharge. This allows the user to safely and efficiently transition to their handgun without the risk of the rifle being fired unintentionally.

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  • 18. 

    When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

    • a. Search.

    • B. Tag.

    • c. Release.

    • D. Safeguard.

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Release.
    Explanation
    The principle of STRESS when processing DCP at collection points involves searching, tagging, and safeguarding them. The release of captives, detainees, and prisoners is not a principle of STRESS.

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  • 19. 

    Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

    • A. Front of vehicle.

    • B. Remain in vehicle.

    • C. Left side of vehicle.

    • D. Right side of vehicle.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Remain in vehicle.
    Explanation
    During a short halt, drivers will remain in their vehicles. This is because a short halt refers to a brief stop or pause in driving, such as at a traffic light or a stop sign. It is important for drivers to stay inside their vehicles during these halts for safety reasons, as getting out of the vehicle can increase the risk of accidents or injuries.

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  • 20. 

    What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

    • A. Hill.

    • B. Saddle.

    • C. Valley.

    • D. Depression.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Depression.
    Explanation
    A low point in the ground or a sinkhole is commonly referred to as a depression. This type of terrain feature is characterized by a concave shape, where the land dips or sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be caused by various geological processes such as erosion, weathering, or the collapse of underground caves. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming ponds or lakes.

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  • 21. 

    What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?

    • A. Cut.

    • B. Spur.

    • C. Cliff.

    • D. Draw.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Spur.
    Explanation
    A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that typically extends from the side of a ridge. It is a terrain feature that can be observed in mountainous or hilly areas. A spur is formed when erosion or other geological processes create a ridge, and then the ridge extends further out, creating a sloping line of higher ground. It is important to note that a spur is different from a cut, cliff, or draw, as these terms refer to other types of terrain features.

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  • 22. 

    Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

    • A. Site security control.

    • B. Security forces.

    • C. Higher headquarters.

    • D. Installation command post.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Installation command post.
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the Installation Command Post. This means that any reportable incidents will be reported to the command post at the installation level. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these incidents.

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  • 23. 

    What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

    • A. Less than 33 percent available.

    • B. Less than 66 percent available.

    • C. Greater than 33 percent available.

    • D. Greater than 66 percent available.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Greater than 33 percent available.
    Explanation
    The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent is available.

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  • 24. 

    How many days are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these units have enough resources, training, and equipment to operate independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external assistance or support.

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  • 25. 

    What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?

    • A. Passive supporter.

    • B. Active supporters.

    • C. Hardcore leadership.

    • D. Active operational cadre.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Active supporters.
    Explanation
    Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists in various ways such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal advice, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities and helping terrorist organizations to function effectively. Unlike passive supporters who may sympathize with terrorists but do not actively contribute to their cause, active supporters actively aid and abet terrorist activities. Therefore, active supporters are the type of supporters described in the question.

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  • 26. 

    What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

    • A. Warn.

    • B. Defeat.

    • C. Delay.

    • D. Defend.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Defend.
    Explanation
    Through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan and ensures their training and qualification on arming and use of force, the desired effect achieved is to defend. This means that the focus is on protecting friendly forces and their assets from any potential threats or attacks. By having a well-coordinated plan and ensuring that all forces are prepared and capable of using force if necessary, the objective is to effectively defend against any hostile actions.

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  • 27. 

    How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

    • A. Less than one century.

    • b. Less than two centuries.

    • C. Within the last 50 years.

    • D. More than two centuries.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. More than two centuries.
    Explanation
    The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US military has a long history of dealing with insurgencies and has gained experience in combating such conflicts over the years. The answer implies that the US military has faced and successfully addressed insurgencies in various periods throughout its history, highlighting the ongoing nature of this challenge.

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  • 28. 

    What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • A. Multinational corporation.

    • B. Governmental organization.

    • C. Host nation security council.

    • D. Intergovernmental organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Intergovernmental organization.
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of agency allows governments to work together and collaborate on issues of mutual interest, such as economic development, security, or environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, the World Health Organization, and the European Union. These organizations provide a platform for member governments to discuss and coordinate policies, share information and resources, and address global challenges collectively.

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  • 29. 

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

    • A. United Nations.

    • B. World Health Organization.

    • c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

    • D. International Refugee Organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. United Nations.
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that brings together member states to promote peace, security, and cooperation. It addresses a wide range of global issues such as climate change, poverty, human rights, and international conflicts. The United Nations has a broad mandate and plays a crucial role in shaping international relations and promoting multilateralism. It is also known for its specialized agencies and programs that focus on specific areas such as health (World Health Organization), education (UNESCO), and humanitarian assistance (UNHCR).

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  • 30. 

    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

    • A. terrain issues.

    • B. logistical issues.

    • C. sovereignty issues.

    • D. transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    A. C. sovereignty issues.
    Explanation
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all locations where the sovereignty of a nation is of utmost importance. These locations are points of entry and exit for goods, people, and resources, and therefore the control and regulation of these areas is crucial for a nation to exercise its sovereignty. These locations often involve customs, immigration, and security procedures, which are all related to the exercise of a nation's authority and control over its borders and territory. Therefore, these examples are all related to sovereignty issues.

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  • 31. 

    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

    • A. Sound.

    • B. Movement.

    • C. Regularity of outline.

    • d. Contrast with the background.

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Contrast with the background.
    Explanation
    Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it refers to the difference in color, brightness, or texture between the target and its surroundings. When a target has high contrast with the background, it becomes more visible and stands out, making it harder for the enemy to conceal or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes contrast an effective indicator for detecting and targeting enemy forces.

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  • 32. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of

    • A. air.

    • B. light.

    • C. terrain.

    • D. atmospheric pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. light.
    Explanation
    The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, and its performance is dependent on the level of light available. The device amplifies the existing light in order to provide clear visibility in low-light or dark environments. Therefore, the level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 is directly influenced by the amount of light present in the surroundings.

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  • 33. 

    On the AN/PVS–14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • A. Compass.

    • B. Tethering cord.

    • C. De-mist shield.

    • D. Sacrificial window.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Compass.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a valuable tool for situational awareness and orientation while using the night vision device.

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  • 34. 

    How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

    • A. Location.

    • B. Weather conditions. .

    • C. Number of personnel assigned.

    • D. Specific unit and mission requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Specific unit and mission requirements
    Explanation
    Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on the specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are about to undertake. This can include factors such as the equipment and resources needed, the specific tasks and responsibilities of the unit, and any unique challenges or considerations related to the mission. By tailoring the inspections in this way, the unit can ensure that they are adequately prepared and equipped for the specific demands of their mission.

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  • 35. 

    Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

    • A. File.

    • B. Wedge.

    • c. Bounding.

    • D. Traveling.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Wedge.
    Explanation
    The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by a team leader at the front, followed by the rest of the team members fanning out behind in a V-shaped pattern. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and fields of fire, as well as flexibility in maneuvering and reacting to enemy threats. It also facilitates communication and coordination among team members, making it an effective formation for tactical movements.

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  • 36. 

    What are the two types of ambushes?

    • A. Distant and near.

    • B. Point and area.

    • C. Area and far.

    • D. Near and far.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Point and area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Point and area. In an ambush, there are two main types: point and area. A point ambush is a surprise attack on a specific target or location, while an area ambush is a broader attack that covers a larger area and targets multiple enemy forces. These two types allow for different tactics and strategies to be employed depending on the situation and objectives of the ambush.

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  • 37. 

    How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Attention?

    • A. Tap the back of the helmet repeatedly with an open hand.

    • B. Point at the palm of the hand with the index finger of the other hand.

    • C. Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; wave the arm to and from the head several times.

    • D. Raise the hand in front of the forehead, palm to the front, and swing the hand and forearm up and down several times in front of the face.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; wave the arm to and from the head several times.
    Explanation
    To perform the hand and arm signal for Attention, you need to extend your arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal. Your palm should face the front, and you should wave your arm to and from the head several times. This signal is used to get someone's attention or to indicate that you want to speak to them.

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  • 38. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • A. Hill.

    • B. Saddle.

    • C. Valley.

    • d. Depression.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Valley.
    Explanation
    A stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers, is called a valley. Valleys are typically formed by the erosive action of flowing water over a long period of time. They are characterized by their elongated shape and often have a river or stream running through them. Valleys can vary in size and depth, and are commonly found in mountainous or hilly regions.

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  • 39. 

    What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?

    • A. Determine direction of the declination diagram.

    • b. Convert magnetic azimuth to a grid azimuth.

    • c. Convert grid azimuth to a back azimuth.

    • D. Orient your map.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Orient your map.
    Explanation
    The first step in navigating using terrain association is to orient your map. This involves aligning the map with the actual terrain and identifying prominent features on the ground that can be used as reference points. By orienting the map, you can accurately determine your location and plan your route based on the surrounding terrain features. This step is crucial in order to effectively navigate using terrain association.

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  • 40. 

    Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

    • A. Fix.

    • b. Average.

    • C. Standby.

    • d. Continuous.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Standby.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Standby. Standby mode in the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) reduces power usage but does not track satellites. This mode is typically used when the receiver is not actively being used but needs to conserve battery power. In standby mode, the receiver is still powered on but is not actively searching for or tracking satellite signals.

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  • 41. 

    Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

    • A. Sniper.

    • b. Rifleman.

    • c. Grenadier.

    • d. Crew-served weapons operator.

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Crew-served weapons operator.
    Explanation
    Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate and maintain them. These weapons are typically larger and heavier than individual rifles or grenades, making it necessary for the crew to use alternate fighting positions to provide cover and support while engaging the enemy.

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  • 42. 

    What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method?

    • A. North.

    • B. South.

    • C. West.

    • D. East.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. West.
    Explanation
    When using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark is always in the west direction. This is because the sun rises in the east and sets in the west, causing objects to cast shadows in the opposite direction. Therefore, when using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark will always be towards the west.

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  • 43. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This suggests that these individuals are considered to be in a moderately urgent situation, requiring prompt evacuation but not immediate emergency response. Evacuating within 4 hours allows for timely response and ensures the safety and well-being of the personnel in this category.

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  • 44. 

    Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?

    • A. Department of State.

    • B. Department of Justice.

    • c. Department of Defense.

    • D. Federal Bureau of Investigation.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Department of Justice.
    Explanation
    The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws, including those related to terrorism. The department's mission includes preventing and investigating acts of terrorism, prosecuting individuals involved in terrorist activities, and coordinating with other agencies to ensure the safety and security of the country. This makes it the primary agency in charge of addressing domestic terrorism threats and taking appropriate legal actions against those responsible.

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  • 45. 

    What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

    • A. Activity.

    • B. Intentions.

    • C. Operational capability.

    • D. Operational environment.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Operational capability.
    Explanation
    Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks and the resources they have at their disposal. It takes into account their access to weapons, funding, training, and technology, as well as any support they may receive from external sources. By evaluating the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can determine the level of threat posed by the group and the potential impact of their attacks.

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  • 46. 

    What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?

    • A. Insurgency picture.

    • B. Counterinsurgency picture.

    • C. Common Operating Picture.

    • D. Operational Environment Picture.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Common Operating Picture.
    Explanation
    Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means they need to have a comprehensive understanding of the various factors that influence the AOR, such as the religious practices followed by the local population, the preferences and characteristics of local leaders, the cultural norms and traditions, and the physical features of the terrain. By developing a common operating picture, units can effectively navigate and operate within the AOR while respecting and understanding the local context.

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  • 47. 

    What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

    • A. Bribery.

    • B. Coercion.

    • C. Persuasion. .

    • D. Encouragement

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Coercion.
    Explanation
    Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to compel someone to do something against their will. In this context, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or stay out of their way, they may resort to using force or threats to achieve their objectives.

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  • 48. 

    Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

    • A. government supported, self-governing, not-for profit organization.

    • B. government supported, self-governing, for profit organization.

    • C. private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization.

    • D. private, self-governing, for-profit organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization.
    Explanation
    A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that an NGO is not controlled or funded by the government, operates independently, and is focused on achieving a social or humanitarian mission rather than making a profit.

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  • 49. 

    Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to

    • A. 500 meters.

    • B. 400 meters.

    • C. 300 meters.

    • D. 200 meters.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 400 meters.
    Explanation
    Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for regular check-ins and regrouping of the team, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and can maintain situational awareness. It also provides a reasonable balance between keeping the team together and making progress towards the destination.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 17, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Rapsonnel
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