1.
At the end of the fiscal year, Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission a tthe national level can keep accrued leave up to:
Correct Answer
A. 90 days when they have at least 60 day assigned
Explanation
Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission at the national level can keep accrued leave up to 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned. This means that if they have accumulated 60 days of leave, they are eligible to carry over and keep up to 90 days of leave at the end of the fiscal year. This allows them to have a sufficient amount of leave for any future vacations or personal time off.
2.
When an AF member becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave, who advises the leave approving authority?
Correct Answer
D. The next of kin
Explanation
The next of kin is advised when an AF member becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave. This is because the next of kin is typically the designated emergency contact for the member and would need to be informed about their health situation. The leave approving authority may also be notified, but the primary responsibility lies with the next of kin.
3.
Convalescent leave begins the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF) and ends on the:
Correct Answer
B. Day before the member returns to duty
Explanation
Convalescent leave is a type of leave granted to military personnel to recover from an illness or injury. According to the given question, convalescent leave begins on the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF). Therefore, it logically follows that the leave would end on the day before the member returns to duty, as mentioned in the answer. This ensures that the member has enough time to rest and recuperate before resuming their duties.
4.
What is emergency leave?
Correct Answer
A. Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a persoanl or family emergency that requires the member's presence
Explanation
Emergency leave refers to a type of leave that is granted to military members in the event of a personal or family emergency that requires their presence. This leave is chargeable, meaning it is deducted from the member's accrued, advance, or excess leave. It allows the member to take time off from their duties to address the emergency situation.
5.
The date that leave requests appear on the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) must be posted to the:
Correct Answer
B. Unit leave control log
Explanation
The correct answer is Unit leave control log. The Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) is a record that tracks various transactions, including leave requests. The date that leave requests appear on the DROT needs to be posted to the Unit leave control log. This log is specifically used to keep track of leave requests for individuals within the unit. It helps in managing and monitoring the leave balances of individuals and ensuring that the unit has accurate records of leave taken by its members.
6.
When a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October, this is determined by the:
Correct Answer
D. Financial Services Office (FSO)
Explanation
The Financial Services Office (FSO) determines when a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October. This suggests that the FSO is responsible for managing and tracking leave authorizations within the unit. The FSO likely has the authority to establish new series of leave authorization numbers and ensure that they are implemented correctly.
7.
Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every:
Correct Answer
B. 45 days
Explanation
Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every 45 days. This ensures that the block assignments are accurate and up to date. Verifying the assignments regularly helps to prevent any discrepancies or errors in the allocation of blocks. It also allows for timely adjustments or corrections to be made if needed. By conducting these verifications every 45 days, the organization can maintain the integrity and accuracy of their block assignments.
8.
The original Notification Memo must be sent to the MPE within:
Correct Answer
C. 10 days
Explanation
The original Notification Memo must be sent to the MPE within 10 days. This implies that there is a requirement to submit the memo within a specific timeframe, and that timeframe is 10 days. Failing to send the memo within this period may result in consequences or non-compliance with regulations.
9.
The Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program is a tool that commanders use to make sure that members who have relocation pending are able to obtain:
Correct Answer
C. Personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested
Explanation
The INTRO Program is designed to provide support to members who are relocating. One of the benefits of this program is that it offers personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested. This means that individuals who are part of the program can receive guidance and support from a sponsor who can help them navigate their new location and settle in more easily. This assistance can be invaluable in helping newcomers adjust to their new environment and feel supported during the transition.
10.
A base INTRO program manager is not responsible for:
Correct Answer
A. Implementing the INTRO program
Explanation
The base INTRO program manager is responsible for planning, organizing, and administering the base orientation program. This includes coordinating and overseeing the implementation of the INTRO program. However, they are not responsible for actually carrying out the implementation themselves. The responsibility for implementing the INTRO program lies with the individuals or teams assigned to execute the program.
11.
The base INTRO program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a:
Correct Answer
A. Base fact sheet
Explanation
The base INTRO program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a base fact sheet. This fact sheet provides essential information about the base, such as its location, facilities, services, and key contacts. It serves as a comprehensive guide for sponsors to familiarize themselves with the base and effectively support newcomers. The fact sheet helps sponsors answer any questions newcomers may have and ensures a smooth transition for them.
12.
Within what timeframe of their selection as sponsor should a sponsor mail the sponsor kit to an inbound member?
Correct Answer
C. 7 calendar days
Explanation
The sponsor should mail the sponsor kit to an inbound member within 7 calendar days of their selection as a sponsor. This means that once the sponsor is chosen, they have a week to send out the sponsor kit to the new member. It is important to do this in a timely manner to ensure that the new member feels welcomed and supported from the beginning of their membership.
13.
Which one of these categories is not a part of the commander's support staff (CSS) responsibilities during unit in-processing procedure?
Correct Answer
B. Medical support
Explanation
During the unit in-processing procedure, the commander's support staff (CSS) is responsible for various tasks. These include providing financial support, assisting with locator information, and handling military equal opportunity matters. However, medical support is not a part of the CSS responsibilities during unit in-processing. This means that the CSS is not responsible for coordinating or providing medical assistance or support to the unit members during this procedure.
14.
Amn Smith just arrived to your unit, her duty information must be updated within:
Correct Answer
B. 1 duty day
Explanation
Amn Smith just arrived to the unit, which means her duty information needs to be updated promptly. The term "duty day" refers to a working day, typically Monday to Friday, excluding weekends and holidays. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 duty day, indicating that the duty information must be updated within the next working day.
15.
When divorced military members do not have custody of their children, when are they eligible to receive basic allowance for susbsistence (BAS)?
Correct Answer
B. When it preserves the visitation rights of the member
Explanation
Divorced military members are eligible to receive basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) when it preserves the visitation rights of the member. This means that if the member is not granted custody of their children, but they have visitation rights and it is necessary for them to have a separate residence to exercise those rights, they can receive BAS. This allows the member to maintain a suitable living arrangement to accommodate their visitation schedule with their children.
16.
In which ranks are enlisted members automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistence (BAS)?
Correct Answer
C. E-7 through E-9
Explanation
Enlisted members in the ranks of E-7 through E-9 are automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistence (BAS). This means that they are eligible to receive a monthly allowance to cover the cost of their meals. The other options, E-5 through E-9, E-6 through E-9, and E-8 through E-9, are incorrect as they do not include the full range of ranks that are eligible for BAS.
17.
What factors can the commander consider when authorizing BAS for members who are not authorized to receive it?
Correct Answer
D. Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence
Explanation
The commander can consider the dining hall capacity to ensure that there is enough space to accommodate the members who are not authorized to receive BAS. Additionally, the location of the member's residence can be considered to determine if it is feasible for them to regularly access the dining hall for meals.
18.
Which type of BAS must be approved byt the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)?
Correct Answer
D. Rations under emergency conditions
Explanation
Rations under emergency conditions must be approved by the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF). This suggests that in situations where there is an emergency and regular rations are not available, the SAF must give their approval for alternative rations to be provided.
19.
How often is a unit required to verify BAS authorization?
Correct Answer
C. Annually
Explanation
A unit is required to verify BAS authorization annually. This means that the verification process needs to be conducted once every year. It is important for the unit to ensure that all BAS authorizations are up to date and valid on an annual basis to maintain compliance and accuracy in financial operations.
20.
Within what timeframe must the MPE return the essential station messing (ESM) roster to the food services officer?
Correct Answer
D. 5 work days
Explanation
The MPE (Messing and Provisions Establishment) must return the essential station messing (ESM) roster to the food services officer within 5 work days. This means that they have a maximum of 5 working days to submit the roster. Calendar days include weekends and holidays, while work days only include the days when work is typically conducted. Therefore, the MPE has slightly more time to complete and submit the roster if weekends and holidays are excluded.
21.
All of these items are required on the ESM addition/deletion letter except:
Correct Answer
B. Office Symbol
Explanation
The ESM addition/deletion letter requires the inclusion of the name, rank, and unit. However, the office symbol is not required on this letter.
22.
Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF)?
Correct Answer
B. Commander
Explanation
The commander determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF). The commander has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding the content and management of the UIF, including the inclusion of optional documents. The commander's role in this process ensures that relevant information is properly documented and considered when making decisions about the member's career and any potential disciplinary actions.
23.
Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a SSgt on the control roster. What is the final disposition date?
Correct Answer
D. Twelve months from today
Explanation
The final disposition date is twelve months from today because when a SSgt is put on the control roster, it typically remains in effect for a period of one year.
24.
Which document is an optional item that may be filed in a UIF?
Correct Answer
A. Article 15 punishment
Explanation
An Article 15 punishment is an optional item that may be filed in a UIF. This means that it is not mandatory to include an Article 15 punishment in the UIF, but it can be included if deemed necessary or relevant.
25.
What is the only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in a UIF?
Correct Answer
A. Letter of reprimand
Explanation
The only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in a UIF is a Letter of reprimand. This document is a formal written statement of disapproval for a specific action or behavior and is considered a more severe form of disciplinary action compared to a Letter of admonition. The other options, such as Record of suspended punishment under Article 15 and Unsuspended Article 15 punishment that is longer than 1 month, may also be included in the UIF, but they are not the only mandatory documents that require referral before filing.
26.
How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an UIF?
Correct Answer
A. 3
Explanation
A member has to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish a UIF within 3 duty days. This means that they have a maximum of 3 working days to respond or acknowledge the notice. After this period, if no response or acknowledgement is received, the UIF can be established.
27.
What does the UIF monitor mark on the front and back of an UIF folder?
Correct Answer
A. "For Official Use Only"
Explanation
The UIF monitor marks the front and back of an UIF folder with "For Official Use Only". This marking indicates that the information contained within the folder is intended for official use only and should not be disclosed to unauthorized individuals. It is a way to ensure the confidentiality and security of the information stored in the UIF folder.
28.
How long after a permanent appointment to a command must a commander review all UIFs?
Correct Answer
B. Within 90 days
Explanation
After a permanent appointment to a command, a commander must review all UIFs within 90 days. This timeframe allows the commander to assess any potential issues or concerns within the UIFs and take appropriate actions. Reviewing the UIFs within this timeframe ensures that any necessary corrective measures can be implemented in a timely manner.
29.
When does the UIF monitor audit UIFs?
Correct Answer
A. At least twice a year
Explanation
The correct answer is "At least twice a year." This means that the UIF monitor conducts audits of UIFs on a minimum of two occasions within a year. This ensures regular monitoring and evaluation of UIFs to ensure compliance and identify any potential issues or discrepancies. By conducting audits at least twice a year, the UIF monitor can maintain a consistent level of oversight and ensure the integrity of the UIF system.
30.
What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an UIF is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station once they complete their TDY?
Correct Answer
B. Send the completed package to the member's unit commander
Explanation
When an UIF (Unfavorable Information File) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station once they complete their TDY (Temporary Duty), the temporary duty commander will send the completed package to the member's unit commander. This ensures that the unit commander is aware of the unfavorable information and can take appropriate action or make any necessary decisions regarding the member's status or future assignments. It also ensures that the information is properly documented and accessible for future reference or evaluation.
31.
The stated purpose of the control roster is to:
Correct Answer
B. Observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance
Explanation
The control roster is used to observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance. This means that it is a tool used to keep an eye on individuals who are not meeting the expected standards of their duties. It allows for closer supervision and intervention to address any performance issues and ensure improvement. It is not specifically used to retain the brightest and best airmen, punish members, or identify those on the verge of crossing the line into non-acceptable behavior.
32.
Who has authority to place a member on the control roster?
Correct Answer
B. Unit Commander
Explanation
The Unit Commander has the authority to place a member on the control roster. The control roster is a disciplinary tool used to monitor and manage the behavior of military personnel. The Unit Commander, as the highest-ranking officer in the unit, has the responsibility to maintain discipline and order within the unit. They have the power to impose disciplinary actions, including placing a member on the control roster, to address misconduct or ensure compliance with regulations. The First Sergeant, Immediate Supervisor, and Command Chief Master Sergeant may have input or recommendations, but the final decision lies with the Unit Commander.
33.
Which action should commanders consider before entering or removing a member from a control roster?
Correct Answer
A. Directing that an EPR or OPR be written
Explanation
Before entering or removing a member from a control roster, commanders should consider directing that an EPR (Enlisted Performance Report) or OPR (Officer Performance Report) be written. This action is important as it allows the commander to assess the member's performance and conduct, which can be used as supporting documentation for the decision to place them on or remove them from the control roster. The EPR or OPR provides a formal evaluation of the member's abilities, strengths, and weaknesses, which can be crucial in determining their suitability for continued service or the need for corrective actions.
34.
Wehn will SSgt Jones be removed from the control roster if he was placed on it on 9 March?
Correct Answer
A. 8 September at 2400 hours
Explanation
SSgt Jones will be removed from the control roster on 8 September at 2400 hours. This is because the control roster is typically for a period of six months, and if he was placed on it on 9 March, then he would remain on it for six months from that date. Therefore, he would be removed on 8 September at 2400 hours.
35.
When can a member who is on the control roster change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action?
Correct Answer
D. When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur
Explanation
When a member is on the control roster, they can change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action when the PCA is essential to the mission and both the losing and gaining commanders agree. This means that if the member's transfer is necessary for the successful completion of the mission and both commanders are in agreement, the member can be transferred to a new unit. This ensures that the member's skills and abilities are utilized effectively and that the mission requirements are met.
36.
What action takes place once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action?
Correct Answer
D. The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her
Explanation
Once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, the member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her behalf. This means that the member is given the opportunity to provide their side of the story or any additional information that may be relevant to the unfavorable information being filed.
37.
What must be included when a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) is forwarded from the initiator to a member's commander?
Correct Answer
B. The member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member
Explanation
When a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) is forwarded from the initiator to a member's commander, it must include the member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member. This is important because it ensures that the member's perspective and any additional information they have provided are included in the record. By including the member's acknowledgement and submitted documents, the commander can have a complete understanding of the situation and make informed decisions based on all available information.
38.
If a letter of counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's UIF, it must be:
Correct Answer
A. Placed in the PIF
Explanation
When a letter of counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's UIF (Unit Personnel File), it should be placed in the PIF (Personnel Information File). The PIF contains important documents related to the member's personnel record, such as performance reports, awards, and disciplinary actions. Placing the LOC in the PIF ensures that it is properly documented and easily accessible for future reference if needed.
39.
Which is normally a reward for good behavior?
Correct Answer
C. Remission
Explanation
Remission is normally a reward for good behavior. In the context of the question, remission refers to the reduction or cancellation of a penalty or punishment. It is often granted as a reward for exhibiting positive behavior or meeting certain criteria while serving a sentence or undergoing a disciplinary process. This can include reducing the length of a prison sentence or granting early release. Therefore, remission is the correct answer as it aligns with the concept of rewarding good behavior.
40.
The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on
Correct Answer
C. Grade of commander and the offender
Explanation
The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on the grade of both the commander and the offender. This means that the severity of the punishment can vary depending on the rank or grade of both individuals involved. The higher the grade of the commander and the offender, the more severe the punishment can be. This is because higher-ranking individuals have more authority and power to impose stricter penalties. Age, grade, current duty assignment, and previous offenses may also be factors considered in determining the appropriate punishment, but the grade of both the commander and the offender is the primary determinant.
41.
Which ranks can be demoted for just cause?
Correct Answer
C. Amn through CMSgt
Explanation
The ranks that can be demoted for just cause are Amn through CMSgt. This means that Airman Basic (Amn), Airman (Amn), Airman First Class (A1C), Senior Airman (SrA), Staff Sergeant (SSgt), Technical Sergeant (TSgt), Master Sergeant (MSgt), Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt), Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) can all be demoted if there is a valid reason for it. The ranks of Captain and above are not included in this list, indicating that they cannot be demoted for just cause.
42.
A commander may initiate administrative demotion actions after a member re-enlists for events or actions that occurred before the current enlistment:
Correct Answer
A. When the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired
Explanation
A commander may initiate administrative demotion actions after a member re-enlists if the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired. This means that if the commander only becomes aware of events or actions that occurred before the current enlistment after the member has re-enlisted, they can still take administrative demotion actions. This allows the commander to address any misconduct or issues that were not known at the time of re-enlistment.
43.
What is the lowest grade to which SSgt Bush can be demoted?
Correct Answer
B. A1C
Explanation
SSgt Bush can be demoted to the lowest grade of A1C. The rank of SSgt is higher than A1C, so demotion would result in a lower rank. Therefore, A1C is the correct answer as it is the lowest rank that SSgt Bush can be demoted to.
44.
All of the following are reasons for demotion except:
Correct Answer
C. Conduct unbecoming an officer
Explanation
Conduct unbecoming an officer is not a reason for demotion. Demotion typically occurs due to failure to keep fit, termination of student status, or failure to fulfill NCO responsibilities. Conduct unbecoming an officer refers to behavior that is unprofessional or inappropriate for an officer, but it is usually addressed through disciplinary actions or other means, rather than demotion.
45.
The commander is submitting a memorandum to demote A1C Hooper. What information does the memorandum contain?
Correct Answer
D. A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander
Explanation
The memorandum contains a statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander.
46.
Members who have been notified of a projected administrative demotion must present either oral or written statements in their behalf within how many days after they have been notified?
Correct Answer
B. 3
Explanation
After being notified of a projected administrative demotion, members are required to present either oral or written statements in their behalf within 3 days. This allows them a short timeframe to provide any necessary evidence or arguments to support their case and potentially prevent the demotion from taking place.
47.
How many days can a member be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown"?
Correct Answer
C. 10
Explanation
A member can be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown" for a maximum of 10 days. This status is used when the member's location is not known and efforts are being made to locate them. After 10 days, if the member's whereabouts are still unknown, further actions may be taken to locate them or declare them as absent without leave (AWOL).
48.
You change members' duty status to "failure to go" when they have an unauthorized absence of:
Correct Answer
A. 24 hours or less
Explanation
When members have an unauthorized absence for 24 hours or less, their duty status is changed to "failure to go." This means that if a member is absent without permission for a period of time that is less than or equal to 24 hours, their duty status is updated to reflect their failure to report for duty. This is likely done to ensure that proper documentation is maintained and that appropriate actions can be taken to address the unauthorized absence.
49.
You may change members' duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and:
Correct Answer
D. Have action pending on a precious unauthorized absence
Explanation
If a member has a pending action for a previous unauthorized absence and they are absent again for less than 30 days, their duty status can be changed to "deserter". This means that if they have already been disciplined for being absent without authorization in the past and they repeat the same behavior within a certain timeframe, they can be considered as deserters. This is a way to address repeated unauthorized absences and ensure that the necessary actions are taken to handle such situations.
50.
What action does a commander take on the 31st day of a unit member's unauthorized absence?
Correct Answer
A. Retrieves ID cards from the member's dependents
Explanation
On the 31st day of a unit member's unauthorized absence, a commander retrieves ID cards from the member's dependents. This action is taken to ensure that the member's dependents no longer have access to any base facilities or privileges that may be associated with the member's ID card. By retrieving the ID cards, the commander is taking a precautionary measure to protect the security and integrity of the base.