Geriatric Medical Terms! Trivia Quiz Questions!
Do you know enough geriatric medical terms to get the trivia quiz questions below correctly? As people age, they become more susceptible to many infections and diseases and a caregiver to know how to deal with a person suffering from all of them. By tackling the questions below, you stand a chance of reviewing what you have learnt in your course. Do give it a shot and see what more you will learn.
- 1.
The pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood & the pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Opposite...pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lung --> heart (to then go to rest of body). The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart --> lung (to get oxygen). This is the opposite of how we usually think of arteries carrying oxy blood & veins carrying de-oxy bloodRate this question:
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- 2.
Indicate ALL the general changes that occur with age to the cardiovascular system.
- A.
Narrowing of vascular lumen
- B.
Increase in myocyte number
- C.
Vessels become more flaccid
- D.
Overall increase in heart rate
- E.
Men's stroke volume remains stable, while women's increases
- F.
Decrease in thickness of left ventricle wall
Correct Answer(s)
A. Narrowing of vascular lumen
E. Men's stroke volume remains stable, while women's increasesExplanation
Age-Related Changes of CV System: - Inc thickness of arterial walls - Narrowing of vascular lumen - Inc vascular stiffness (dec ineffectiveness of elastin) - Inc LV wall thickness (dec myocyte #, but inc myocyte size) - Inc plaques in arteries - Overall mild dec in HR (mild dec when sitting, normal when standing) - Inc stroke volume in women, stable for men - Peak O2 consumption dec during exercise - Dec in the function of sarcoplasmic reticulumRate this question:
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- 3.
What is the leading cause of coronary artery disease?
- A.
Arteriosclerosis
- B.
Smoking
- C.
Atheroslerosis
- D.
High BP
Correct Answer
C. AtheroslerosisExplanation
Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaque in the arteries, which narrows and hardens them over time. This condition is the leading cause of coronary artery disease. It occurs when cholesterol, fat, and other substances accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to become thick and less flexible. This restricts blood flow to the heart, leading to various cardiovascular problems. Smoking, high blood pressure, and arteriosclerosis (hardening of the arteries) can contribute to atherosclerosis, but atherosclerosis itself is the primary cause of coronary artery disease.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following types of angina can often lead to a heart attack and does not respond to nitroglycerin?
- A.
Stable angina
- B.
Unstable angina
- C.
Both should respond to nitro if administered at the first symptom
Correct Answer
B. Unstable anginaExplanation
Stable: not enough blood flow during exercise, but ok at rest Unstable: can occur during exercise OR restRate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following would NOT be a good choice for viewing actual structures of the heart?
- A.
Echocardiogram
- B.
Cardiac Catherization
- C.
Electrocardiogram
- D.
All can be used to visualize the heart
Correct Answer
C. ElectrocardiogramExplanation
ECHO: ultrasound to visualize structures of the heart EKG: measure the electrical activity of heart Cardiac Catherization: catheter placed in heart, dye injected, an x-ray taken to visualize coronary arteries & heart valve fxn Also... Cardiac Enzyme: creatine kinase & troponin released when heart damaged MUGA: inject radioactive material to visualize pumping action of heart Exercise stress test: treadmill + monitor heartRate this question:
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- 6.
Omega 3 can be beneficial to pts with CV compromise bc it helps reduce clotting.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Be careful if pt is already on another blood thinner...Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following would be considered a 'last resort' medication for cardiovascular compromise?
- A.
Nitrates
- B.
Beta Blockers
- C.
Statins
- D.
Thrombolytics
Correct Answer
D. ThrombolyticsExplanation
Thrombolytics or 'clot busters' dissolve blood clots quickly and are used if someone is experiencing a heart attack or stroke; administered via IV (ex. streptokinase) Other Meds: - Aspirin/Plavix: blood thinners to prevent clots - Nitrates: open up blood vessels - Beta-Blockers: dec HR - Calcium Channel Blockers: relax arteries, dec HR - Statins: Dec chl to dec plaque formationRate this question:
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- 8.
A doctor will consider coronary bypass surgery if there is ____% blockage.
Correct Answer
70Explanation
A doctor will consider coronary bypass surgery if there is 70% blockage. This means that when the patient's coronary arteries are narrowed by 70% due to plaque buildup, the doctor will consider performing bypass surgery. This procedure involves redirecting blood flow around the blocked or narrowed part of the artery to improve blood supply to the heart. It is typically recommended when the blockage is severe and other treatments such as medication or angioplasty are not sufficient.Rate this question:
- 9.
Pre-hypertension falls under which of the following systolic/diastolic ranges?
- A.
130-149 / 80-89
- B.
120-139 / 90-99
- C.
120-139 / 80-89
- D.
140-159 / 90-99
Correct Answer
C. 120-139 / 80-89Explanation
Pre-hypertension falls under the systolic/diastolic range of 120-139 / 80-89. This means that if a person's blood pressure readings fall within this range, they are considered to have pre-hypertension. It is important to monitor blood pressure in this range closely, as it indicates an increased risk for developing hypertension. Lifestyle modifications such as a healthy diet, regular exercise, and stress management may be recommended to prevent the progression to hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The shorter the vessel length the greater the systemic vascular resistance?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Longer BV length = more resistance = inc BPRate this question:
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- 11.
Indicate which of the following meds can lead to secondary hypertension.
- A.
NSAIDs
- B.
Beta blockers
- C.
Steroids
- D.
Migraine Meds
- E.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Correct Answer(s)
A. NSAIDs
C. Steroids
D. Migraine MedsExplanation
NSAIDs: retain fluid Migraine meds: BV constrictionRate this question:
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- 12.
Describe what Pseudo-Hypertension is caused by and how docs can differentiate it from true hypertension.
- 13.
While taking a BP reading in the clinic you get multiple readings with an average of 187/108. What do you diagnose this as?
- A.
Stage 1 HTN
- B.
Stage 2 HTN
- C.
HTN Urgency
- D.
HTN Emergency
Correct Answer
C. HTN UrgencyExplanation
HTN Urgency: >/= 180 &/or >/= 110 HTN Emergency: > 200-220 &/or 120-130Rate this question:
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- 14.
Subclavian Steal Syndrome is a condition where there is stenosis of the subclavian artery proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery resulting in reduced blood flow to the heart.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Blockage of the subclavian artery at the location will cause reversal of blood in the vertebral artery which is sending blood up to the brain. Can lead to brain damage. There will be decreased BP on affected side usually greater than 20 mmHg and is a common reason for unequal pressures between the 2 arms.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Osteoporosis is diagnosed ff bone loss is greater than ____ standard deviations below the normal mean bone mineral density (BMD) of a young adult
Correct Answer
2.5Explanation
Osteoporosis is diagnosed if the bone loss is greater than 2.5 standard deviations below the normal mean bone mineral density (BMD) of a young adult. This means that if an individual's BMD falls more than 2.5 standard deviations below the average BMD of a young adult, they are considered to have osteoporosis. This measurement is used to determine the severity of bone loss and diagnose the condition.Rate this question:
- 16.
Bisphosphonates (e.g. Fosomax & Boniva) work by stimulating osteoblasts which results in increased bone density & reduced fractures by 50%
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting osteoCLASTSRate this question:
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- 17.
Desribe the main symptomatic difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.
- 18.
Methotrexate & Plaquenil are medications for which of the following conditions?
- A.
Sjorgren's
- B.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
- C.
Subclavian Steel Syndrome
- D.
Anemia
Correct Answer
A. Sjorgren'sExplanation
Methotrexate is a last resort med in Sjorgren'sRate this question:
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- 19.
Indicate all of the associated symptoms/demographics for Giant Cell Arteritis
- A.
More common in males
- B.
Fever & weight gain
- C.
Tenderness of scalp
- D.
Jaw pain when chewing
- E.
Can often occur with polymalgia rheumatica
Correct Answer(s)
C. Tenderness of scalp
D. Jaw pain when chewing
E. Can often occur with polymalgia rheumaticaExplanation
Symptoms of Giant Cell Arteritis: - Mean age of onset is 70 yo - 3x more common in females - 35% of time occurs w/ polymyalgia rheumatic (pain of shoulders/pelvic girdle) - fever & weight loss - new-onset temporal HA - tenderness of scalp (where the temporal artery is located) - jaw claudication - vision issuesRate this question:
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- 20.
The following equations are used to determine the typical ESR: Men: age/2 Women: (age+10)/2
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
ESR helpful in the diagnosis of giant cell arteritisRate this question:
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- 21.
What is the gold standard for diagnosing giant cell arteritis?
- A.
ESR
- B.
C-Reactive Protein
- C.
Temporal artery biopsy
Correct Answer
C. Temporal artery biopsyExplanation
Before initiating tx for giant cell arteritis, a temporal artery biopsy should be conducted.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If acute vision loss occurs secondary to giant cell arteritis oral steroids should be adminstered, once symptoms have stabalized, administer IV steroids as well.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
- If acute vison loss occurs w/ giant cell arteritis, give IV steroids followed by oral steroid
- If no vision loss occurs, give oral steroidsRate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is found to be low in post-traumatic stress syndrome pts?
- A.
Epinehprine
- B.
Cortisol
- C.
Dopamine
- D.
Seratonin
Correct Answer
B. CortisolExplanation
Cortisol is found to be low in post-traumatic stress syndrome (PTSD) patients. PTSD is a mental health disorder that occurs after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Cortisol is a hormone released by the body in response to stress, and it helps regulate the body's stress response. In individuals with PTSD, the chronic activation of the stress response system can lead to a dysregulation of cortisol levels. Studies have shown that PTSD patients often have lower levels of cortisol, which may contribute to the symptoms and difficulties associated with the disorder.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Over 65 yo, women are more constipated than men.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
LameRate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following procedures also allows for a biopsy to be performed to check for colorectal cancer?
- A.
Sigmoidoscopy
- B.
Colonoscopy
Correct Answer
B. ColonoscopyExplanation
Sigmoidoscopy: rectum & lower colon --> every 5 years
Colonscopoy: rectum & entire colon & biopsy --> every 10 years
Usually recommend fecal occult blood test (FOBT)Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which form of hepatitis is most commonly found in the elderly?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
Hep treated w/ interferon --> can lead to interferon retinopathyRate this question:
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- 27.
BpH significantly increases the risk for prostate cancer
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
BPH does NOT increase the risk for prostate cancerRate this question:
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- 28.
After age 60, men should get a PSA (prostate spcific antigen) how often?
- A.
Every year
- B.
Every 2 years
- C.
Every 5 years
- D.
Just once, after that a different test should be used bc PSA is not very specific for prostate cancer
Correct Answer
A. Every yearExplanation
No more screening after 75 yoRate this question:
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- 29.
Any woman with hx of breast cancer or man with hx of lung cancer should have a DFE due to the high risk of metastasis with these conditions.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because women with a history of breast cancer and men with a history of lung cancer have a high risk of metastasis, which refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary site to other parts of the body. A DFE (Digital Fundus Examination) is a medical procedure that examines the back of the eye for signs of metastasis. Therefore, it is recommended for individuals with a history of these types of cancer to undergo a DFE to monitor for any potential spread of cancer cells to the eye.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is considered the 'aging pigment'?
- A.
Amyloid
- B.
Neurofibrillary tangles
- C.
Free Radicals
- D.
Lipofuscion
Correct Answer
D. LipofuscionExplanation
Lipofuscion: yellow/brown pigment granules mostly composed of lipid residues deposited into nerve cells secondary to mitochondiral/lysozyme damage
Amyloid: hard deposits composed of proteins/polysacchardiesRate this question:
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- 31.
Brain weight decreases by ____% with age
Correct Answer
10Explanation
There is also a 20% decrease in cerebral flowRate this question:
- 32.
The 1st line of treatment for a TIA is:
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Carotid endarterectomy
- C.
Carotid artery angioplasty
- D.
Stenting
Correct Answer
A. AspirinExplanation
Carotid endarterectomy is indicated if there is 70% narrowing, shown to not be effective if less than 50% blockageRate this question:
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- 33.
Ischemic strokes are much more common that hemorrhagic strokes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Ischemic: BVs in brain get clogged
Hemorrhagic: weakened BV bursts and blood compresses brain (much more deadly) (2 types: intracerebral & subarachnoid)Rate this question:
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- 34.
If someone had a stroke and presents with a ptosis, weakened extraocular muscles, dilated pupils and nystagmus, what area of the brain do you think was most affected?
- A.
Right hemisphere
- B.
Left hemisphere
- C.
Brainstem
- D.
Cerebellum
Correct Answer
C. BrainstemExplanation
Brainstem --> think cranial nervesRate this question:
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- 35.
Most diabetic patients will also be on an ACE-inhibitor for what reason?
- A.
Renal protection
- B.
Hepatic protection
- C.
Greater effects if they do not respond to insulin
- D.
To potentiate the effects of Metformin
Correct Answer
A. Renal protectionExplanation
Diabetic patients are often prescribed ACE inhibitors for renal protection. ACE inhibitors help to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the kidneys, which can be beneficial for individuals with diabetes who are at a higher risk of developing kidney disease. By protecting the kidneys, ACE inhibitors can help to prevent or slow down the progression of diabetic nephropathy, a common complication of diabetes that can lead to kidney failure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the minimum fasting blood sugar to be considered a diabetic?
Correct Answer
126Explanation
Normal: < 100
Pre-DM: 100-125Rate this question:
- 37.
Which of the following drugs can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
- A.
Statins
- B.
CAIs
- C.
Beta blockers
- D.
Avandia
Correct Answer
C. Beta blockersExplanation
Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia such as sweating & palpitationsRate this question:
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- 38.
What is the first sign of renal disease?
- A.
Thickened lumen of nephron arterioles
- B.
Scarring of glomeruli
- C.
Blood in urine
- D.
Albumin in urine
Correct Answer
D. Albumin in urineExplanation
Thickening of BM of glomerulus --> protein leak in urineRate this question:
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- 39.
Amiodarone & lithium are two drugs that can potentially cause hyperthyroidsm.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Amiodarone & lithium can cause HYPOthyroidismRate this question:
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- 40.
Age leads to decreased RBC lifespan and decreased total blood volume
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
RBC lifespan + total blood volume are stable w/ ageRate this question:
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- 41.
What is the most common cause of anemia?
- A.
Sickle Cell
- B.
Dec. B12
- C.
Blood loss
- D.
Dec. iron
Correct Answer
D. Dec. ironExplanation
The most common cause of anemia is a decrease in iron levels. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. When iron levels are low, the body is unable to produce enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. Sickle cell anemia is a specific type of anemia caused by a genetic mutation, while vitamin B12 deficiency and blood loss can also contribute to anemia but are not as common as low iron levels.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Emphysema usually leads to hypoxia
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Bronchitis --> Blue Bloaters --> Hypoxic --> chronic cough (inc CO & weight)
Emphysema --> Pink Puffers --> usually not hypoxic --> SOB (dec CO & weight)Rate this question:
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- 43.
Tetracycline & doxycycline are commonly prescribed for what skin disorder?
- A.
Herpes zoster
- B.
Herpes simplex
- C.
Rosacea
- D.
Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer
C. RosaceaExplanation
Tetra 250 mg QID
Doxy 100 mg BID
+ Metro gel given (antibiotic)Rate this question:
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- 44.
Indicate the appropriate dosage for Acyclovir for the treatment of postherpetic neuralgia.
- A.
400 mg
- B.
800 mg
- C.
3x per day
- D.
5x per day
- E.
For 5 days
- F.
For 10 days
Correct Answer(s)
B. 800 mg
D. 5x per day
F. For 10 daysExplanation
The appropriate dosage for Acyclovir for the treatment of postherpetic neuralgia is 800 mg, 5 times per day, for 10 days. This dosage and frequency is recommended to effectively manage the symptoms and duration of postherpetic neuralgia, which is a painful condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. By taking 800 mg of Acyclovir 5 times a day for 10 days, the medication can help reduce the severity and duration of the pain associated with postherpetic neuralgia.Rate this question:
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Aug 01, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 02, 2012Quiz Created by
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