3DX7X Volume 1 Unit Review Questions
- 1.
Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A.
A. Computer Systems Programming.
- B.
B. Cyber Systems Operations.
- C.
C. Cyber Transport Systems.
- D.
D. Cyber Surety.
Correct Answer
A. A. Computer Systems Programming.Explanation
The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) for Computer Systems Programming requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test. This test is likely a prerequisite for this specialty as it ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is essential for computer systems programming. The other options, Cyber Systems Operations, Cyber Transport Systems, and Cyber Surety, may require different tests or qualifications specific to their respective specialties.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A.
A. Minimum rank of SSgt.
- B.
B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
- C.
Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.
- D.
D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
Correct Answer
D. D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.Explanation
The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
A. Communications Focal Point.
- B.
B. Unit Deployment Monitor.
- C.
C. Enterprise Service Desk.
- D.
D. Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer
A. A. Communications Focal Point. -
- 4.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
A. TO 00–5–15.
- B.
B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
- C.
C. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
- D.
D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Correct Answer
B. B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.Explanation
The correct answer is b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document, known as the Military Personnel Testing Office (MPTO) 00–33A–1001–WA, directs the Communications Focal Point key processes. It provides guidance and instructions on how to effectively manage and operate the Communications Focal Point, ensuring smooth communication within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?
- A.
A. at major command functional managers
- B.
B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- C.
C. at the Air Force Personnel Center.
- D.
D. with career field managers.
Correct Answer
B. B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).Explanation
The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming for the Air Force is done at the highest level of command, which is the HAF. This centralization allows for better coordination and alignment of manpower resources across the entire Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective utilization of personnel.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
A. Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
B. B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the manpower requirements, authorized positions, and personnel assigned to each position within the organization. The UMD helps in planning and allocating resources effectively, ensuring that the organization has the right number of personnel with the required skills and qualifications to perform the necessary tasks. It also helps in tracking changes in manpower requirements and managing personnel assignments accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
A. Program Element Code (PEC).
- B.
B. Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
- C.
C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. A. Program Element Code (PEC).Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier used to track and manage the costs associated with specific program elements within a larger program. PECs are typically used in budgeting and financial management systems to allocate and track costs at a detailed level. This allows for better control and visibility of costs, and helps in making informed decisions regarding resource allocation and program management.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
A. Construct career paths.
- B.
B. Manage skill-level training requirements.
- C.
C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D.
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for various tasks related to managing and developing the career field. They are responsible for constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
- B.
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
- C.
C. Career Field Manager (CFM).
- D.
D. SAF/CIO A6.
Correct Answer
B. B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.Explanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are properly addressed and implemented. They have the authority to make decisions and vote on behalf of the MAJCOM during these important meetings and workshops.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A.
A. Segment 1
- B.
B. Segment 2.
- C.
C. Segment 3.
- D.
D. Segment 4.
Correct Answer
B. B. Segment 2.Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed for their training. It may involve identifying gaps in skills or knowledge and developing a plan to address them through appropriate training resources.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
A. Draft and sign minutes.
- B.
B. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- C.
C. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.
- D.
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
Correct Answer
D. D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Explanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education plans. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses. This task is likely handled by another team or department within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
- C.
C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
- D.
D. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
Correct Answer
B. B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.Explanation
The optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer. This means that the presence of this individual is not mandatory for the workshop, but they can choose to attend if they wish. The other options listed are not specified as optional attendees, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
- B.
B. Quality Training Package (QTP).
- C.
C. Subject Matter Experts (SME).
- D.
D. Job Quality Standards (JQS).
Correct Answer
A. A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupation, including the knowledge, skills, and abilities required. This analysis serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on accurate and up-to-date information about the occupation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
A. Remedy
- B.
B. Situational Report (SITREP).
- C.
C. Telephone Management System (TMS).
- D.
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer
D. D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). This system allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance activities and data for various items within an organization. It provides a centralized database for storing and retrieving information related to maintenance, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date records are maintained. IMDS helps in streamlining maintenance processes and improving overall efficiency and effectiveness in managing maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
A. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
- B.
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
- C.
C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).
- D.
D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
Correct Answer
B. B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).Explanation
The correct answer is b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). This duty is not commonly associated with the role of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
A. Communications Focal Point.
- B.
B. Flight Commander/Chief.
- C.
C. Production Controller.
- D.
D. Commander.
Correct Answer
B. B. Flight Commander/Chief.Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure that periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority to set up and enforce procedures and guidelines for inspections, ensuring that they are conducted regularly and according to the required standards. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of the operations within the flight.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
A. Master Task List.
- B.
B. Job Qualification Standard.
- C.
C. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- D.
D. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.
Correct Answer
B. B. Job Qualification Standard.Explanation
The Master Training Plan includes various components that are relevant to the work center. The Job Qualification Standard (JQS) is one such component that is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. The JQS outlines the specific qualifications and skills required for a particular job or position within the work center. It serves as a guide for training and development, ensuring that individuals are adequately prepared and qualified to perform their assigned tasks. Therefore, the JQS is included in the Master Training Plan only when it is relevant to the work center.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
A. 30.
- B.
B. 60.
- C.
C. 90.
- D.
D. 120.
Correct Answer
D. D. 120.Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after new equipment or system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated within 120 days to ensure that they are properly trained and qualified to operate the new equipment or system. This evaluation helps to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC personnel in utilizing the new equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
- B.
B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
- C.
C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
- D.
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer
D. D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost. -
- 20.
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 6.
- D.
D. 8.
Correct Answer
C. C. 6.Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic process to identify, assess, and control risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: 1) Identify risks, 2) Assess risks, 3) Evaluate risks, 4) Develop risk controls, 5) Implement risk controls, and 6) Monitor and review risks. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 6.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
A. AF Form 55.
- B.
B. AF Form 971.
- C.
C. AF Form 623A.
- D.
D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer
A. A. AF Form 55.Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is used to record and track safety training for individuals within the Air Force. It allows supervisors to keep a record of who has completed the required safety training and when it was completed. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all personnel have received the necessary safety training and maintain a comprehensive record of their training history.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
A. Job Safety Training (JST).
- B.
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
- C.
C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
- D.
D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Correct Answer
A. A. Job Safety Training (JST).Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a process that involves identifying potential hazards and analyzing the steps required to complete a job safely. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?
- A.
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
- B.
B. Resources required to manage and use TOs.
- C.
C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
- D.
D. Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer
A. A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Explanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
A. AFTO Form 673.
- B.
B. AFTO Form 22.
- C.
C. AF Form 673.
- D.
D. AF Form 22.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFTO Form 22.Explanation
The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of submitting changes to technical orders in the Air Force. AF Form 673 is not the correct form for this purpose, as it is used for documenting training and qualification records. Therefore, the correct form for submitting recommended TO changes is AFTO Form 22.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
A. Library Custodian.
- B.
B. Flight commander/chief.
- C.
C. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
- D.
D. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
Correct Answer
B. B. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the necessary procedures and documentation needed for the equipment. The flight commander/chief understands the specific requirements and operational needs of the equipment and can ensure that the appropriate checklists and work cards are in place for the safety and efficiency of the operations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
- B.
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- D.
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
B. B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).Explanation
The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including the telecommunications industry. Accreditation from ANSI ensures that TIA meets certain quality and performance standards, and that their products and services are reliable and trustworthy.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
- B.
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- D.
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
D. D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The ECIA is a trade association that represents the electronic components industry and works to ensure the availability and quality of electronic components. They collaborate with manufacturers, distributors, and suppliers to establish industry standards for IP&E components.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
A. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
- B.
B. Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
- C.
C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
- D.
D. Publications Manager.
Correct Answer
C. C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.Explanation
The AF Form 673 is a form that certifies an individual's qualification or completion of a task. The Certifying Official is the person who has the authority to endorse and verify this certification. In this case, the correct answer is c. The authoring OPR's supervisor. This means that the supervisor of the person or office responsible for creating and maintaining the form should be the one to endorse it. This ensures that there is proper oversight and accountability in the certification process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
- B.
B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- C.
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
- D.
D. Military only.
Correct Answer
C. C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to pre-existing software or hardware components that are readily available in the market. These systems are widely used in both federal and non-federal systems because they provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain. COTS solutions are developed by experienced vendors and have undergone rigorous testing and validation, ensuring their reliability and compatibility with different systems. By using COTS systems, organizations can avoid the cost and time associated with developing custom solutions, while still benefiting from a standardized and well-supported domain that can be easily maintained and defended.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
A. 10.
- B.
B. 15.
- C.
C. 37.
- D.
D. 50.
Correct Answer
A. A. 10.Explanation
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This means that the establishment and structure of the Department of Defense is outlined and authorized by the laws and regulations stated in Title 10 of the United States Code.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
A. 15.
- B.
B. 18.
- C.
C. 32.
- D.
D. 37.
Correct Answer
C. C. 32.Explanation
The correct answer is c. 32. The explanation for this answer is that the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
A. Wing Commander.
- B.
B. Numbered Air Force Commander.
- C.
C. Communications Squadron Commander.
- D.
D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer
A. A. Wing Commander.Explanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A.
A. misuse of position.
- B.
B. a covered relationships.
- C.
C. non-public information.
- D.
D. personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. A. misuse of position.Explanation
When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that they are taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their role or organization. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as a loss of trust, damage to reputation, or legal repercussions.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).
- B.
B. Military Construction (MILCON).
- C.
C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
- D.
D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer
B. B. Military Construction (MILCON).Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities, including bases, barracks, training centers, and other infrastructure. These funds are used to support the military's operational needs and to ensure that facilities are up to date and able to meet the demands of the military mission. Relocating facilities may be necessary due to changes in strategic priorities, the need for more space, or the need to consolidate resources. MILCON funds provide the financial resources to make these relocations possible.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A.
A. $100,000.
- B.
B. $250,000.
- C.
C. $750,000.
- D.
D. $1,000,000.
Correct Answer
C. C. $750,000.Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
A. 10–401.
- B.
B. 33–360.
- C.
C. 38–101.
- D.
D. 64–117.
Correct Answer
D. D. 64–117. -
- 37.
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
A. Approval Official (AO).
- B.
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
- C.
C. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
- D.
D. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).
Correct Answer
B. B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. This role ensures that the program is properly implemented and followed within the organization, provides training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitors the usage of the GPC to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. The A/OPC acts as the point of contact for any issues or questions related to the GPC Program at the installation level.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
- A.
A. Making authorized transactions.
- B.
B. Reconciling transactions.
- C.
C. Logging transactions.
- D.
D. Funds accountability.
Correct Answer
D. D. Funds accountability.Explanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department of the government agency or organization that issues the GPC.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
- A.
A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.
- B.
B. Joint Publication 1–02.
- C.
C. Joint Publication 1–03.
- D.
D. AFI 10–401.
Correct Answer
D. D. AFI 10–401.Explanation
The correct answer is d. AFI 10-401. The explanation for this answer is that the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request can be found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-401. This AFI is specifically related to the process and procedures for reclama and shortfall requests, making it the most relevant source for finding the detailed instructions. Joint Publication 1-02 and Joint Publication 1-03 may contain general information about military procedures, but they do not specifically address reclama and shortfall requests.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
A. Air Force Chief of Staff.
- B.
B. Secretary of the Air Force.
- C.
C. Selected major command Command Chiefs.
- D.
D. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. A. Air Force Chief of Staff.Explanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This implies that the Air Force Chief of Staff plays a role in the final approval or confirmation of the chosen individuals.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
- A.
A. Wing.
- B.
B. Group.
- C.
C. Squadron.
- D.
D. major command.
Correct Answer
A. A. Wing.Explanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This suggests that the Wing is a higher organizational unit compared to the Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and it is likely that the Wing level encompasses multiple Groups, Squadrons, and major commands, making it the highest level for such presentations.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
- A.
A. 36–2604.
- B.
B. 36–2803.
- C.
C. 36–2805.
- D.
D. 36–2845.
Correct Answer
D. D. 36–2845. -
- 43.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer(SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
A. 1 October - 30 September.
- B.
B. 1 January - 31 December.
- C.
C. 1 April - 31 March.
- D.
D. 1 July - 30 June.
Correct Answer
A. A. 1 October - 30 September.Explanation
The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
- A.
A. 53.
- B.
B. 63.
- C.
C. 73.
- D.
D. 83.
Correct Answer
B. B. 63.Explanation
FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows for the connection of multiple devices. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because FireWire uses a 6-bit field in its addressing scheme, allowing for a maximum of 64 unique addresses. However, one address is reserved for the bus itself, leaving 63 addresses available for devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 63.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
A. Monitor.
- B.
B. Scanner.
- C.
C. Keyboard.
- D.
D. Graphics card.
Correct Answer
C. C. Keyboard.Explanation
A device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board is a keyboard. Keyboards typically have multiple switches, each representing a different character or function, and when a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the computer. This allows the user to input data or commands into the computer system.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
A. At least 5.
- B.
B. No more than 10.
- C.
C. No more than 20.
- D.
D. 20 or more.
Correct Answer
C. C. No more than 20.Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, typically used in small businesses or home networks. It is designed to facilitate file sharing, printer sharing, and collaboration between computers. The correct answer is c. No more than 20 because a workgroup is generally limited to a small number of computers, usually under 20, to ensure efficient communication and management within the group.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
A. Simple.
- B.
B. Relative.
- C.
C. Positive.
- D.
D. Absolute.
Correct Answer
C. C. Positive.Explanation
The correct answer is c. Positive. In UNIX, there are three types of pathnames: simple, relative, and absolute. A simple pathname refers to a file or directory in the current directory. A relative pathname refers to a file or directory relative to the current directory. An absolute pathname refers to a file or directory starting from the root directory. However, there is no such thing as a positive pathname in UNIX.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A.
A. Norton Utilities.
- B.
B. Acrobat Reader.
- C.
C. Virus Scan.
- D.
D. WinZip.
Correct Answer
A. A. Norton Utilities.Explanation
Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. Norton Utilities provides features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it a comprehensive solution for maintaining the health and performance of a computer system. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer the same set of tools and functionalities as Norton Utilities in terms of file recovery and computer failure protection.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
- B.
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
- C.
C. Distance Vector and Link State.
- D.
D. RS–232 and RS–530.
Correct Answer
B. B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).Explanation
The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing. It ensures that data is delivered reliably between two devices on the network. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data frames. It handles tasks such as addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
A. Network.
- B.
B. Physical.
- C.
C. Data Link.
- D.
D. Transport.
Correct Answer
C. C. Data Link.Explanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes and ensures error-free transmission over the physical layer. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN), making decisions based on the destination MAC address. Therefore, their operation falls under the Data Link layer.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 21, 2016Quiz Created by
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