3DX7X Volume 2 Cyberspace Support Craftsman: Quiz!
(97).jpg "3DX7X Volume 2 Cyberspace Support Craftsman: Quiz! - Quiz")
.
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning.
- B.
Crisis action planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate planning.Explanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is done in advance and is based on careful analysis and consideration of various factors, such as the mission, resources, and potential risks. It helps ensure that the necessary preparations and actions are taken to effectively respond to potential crises and achieve the desired objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1.
- B.
Volume 2.
- C.
Volume 3.
- D.
Volume 4.
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1.Explanation
Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain information on various aspects of mobilization planning, such as the allocation of resources, deployment of forces, and coordination of logistics. It serves as a comprehensive guide for military planners and decision-makers in preparing for and executing mobilization efforts during times of war.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
Joint Staff.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.Explanation
The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They ensure that the necessary personnel and equipment are available for deployment and coordinate with other units and agencies to meet deployment requirements. The AFPC AEF Center plays a crucial role in the overall deployment process and is responsible for initiating the sourcing of requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Joint force/capability.
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
Ad hoc.
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capability.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This means that one service is substituting for another service to fulfill a specific task or mission. This can occur in situations where one service may not have the necessary resources or capabilities to complete a mission, so another service steps in to provide support.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Facility condition.
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Facility condition.Explanation
SORTS measures and reports on the status of resources and training in various areas. This includes personnel, equipment condition, and training. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Home station mission.
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Home station mission.Explanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories such as training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the readiness category that is not measured by ART is the home station mission. This means that ART does not assess the readiness of the mission being conducted at the home station.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
10–201.
- B.
10–244.
- C.
10–401.
- D.
10–403.
Correct Answer
B. 10–244.Explanation
The correct answer is 10–244. This is because AFI 10–244 provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10–201.
- B.
AFI 10–244.
- C.
AFI 10–401.
- D.
AFI 10–403.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10–201.Explanation
AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. The other options, AFI 10-244, AFI 10-401, and AFI 10-403, do not specifically address DOC statements.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units.
- B.
Joint Planners.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer
A. Pilot Units.Explanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection.
- B.
Airfield operations.
- C.
Force accountability.
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).Explanation
The open the airbase force module has various initial capabilities, including force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not one of the initial capabilities of this module. EOD involves the detection, identification, and disposal of explosive devices, which is a specialized skill set that falls outside the scope of the open the airbase force module's initial capabilities.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics.
- B.
Intelligence and force protection.
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence.
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability.
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligence.Explanation
The Command and Control module requires secure communications to ensure that information is transmitted accurately and efficiently between different units and levels of command. Intelligence is also crucial for establishing control as it provides commanders with the necessary information about the enemy, the environment, and their own forces to make informed decisions. By having secure communications and intelligence, commanders can effectively establish control over their forces and make strategic decisions based on accurate and timely information.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Establish the airbase.
- D.
Generate the mission.
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbase.Explanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure, resources, and personnel required for the airbase to operate effectively. It involves tasks such as constructing runways, establishing communication systems, setting up command and control centers, and coordinating with other force modules to ensure smooth operations and mission accomplishment.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days.
- B.
2 days, 14 days.
- C.
7 days, 14 days.
- D.
14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 days.Explanation
The airbase force module arrives within 2 days after opening the airbase. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission.
- B.
Establish the airbase.
- C.
Operate the airbase.
- D.
Robust the airbase
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbaseExplanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase". This means that after the airbase has been established and is operational, additional support forces will be brought in to strengthen and enhance its capabilities. These support forces may include personnel, equipment, supplies, or any other resources that are needed to ensure the airbase is fully functional and able to sustain operations for an extended period of time.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O–4.
- B.
O–5.
- C.
O–6.
- D.
O–7.
Correct Answer
C. O–6.Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Robust the airbase.
- D.
Open the airbase.
Correct Answer
A. Command and control.Explanation
The force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is Command and control.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km).
- B.
4 km.
- C.
8 km.
- D.
16 km.
Correct Answer
D. 16 km.Explanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy.
- B.
Combat plans.
- C.
Combat support.
- D.
Combat operations.
Correct Answer
C. Combat support.Explanation
Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, Strategy, Combat plans, and Combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support refers to the logistical and administrative support provided to combat operations, rather than being a separate division within the operations center itself.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
RQ–11B Raven.
- C.
MQ–1B Predator.
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer
B. RQ–11B Raven.Explanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team of soldiers or operators. The MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk are larger and more advanced UASs that are used for long-range and high-altitude missions, making them not categorized as small UASs.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. -
- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).Explanation
The 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS) is the correct answer because it is the only Engineering Installation (EI) unit mentioned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. This unit provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis, indicating its role in emergency situations and its expertise in these specific areas.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942.
- B.
1954.
- C.
1988.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
D. 1998.Explanation
In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger was a significant step in consolidating the various broadcasting entities within the armed forces, allowing for better coordination and efficiency in delivering news, entertainment, and information to military personnel stationed around the world. This merger likely aimed to streamline operations, reduce costs, and improve the overall quality and reach of the broadcasting services provided to the armed forces.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001. -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and control.Explanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This is because project management typically involves these phases. The planning phase involves defining the project objectives, scope, and deliverables. The execution phase involves carrying out the project tasks and activities. The closure phase involves finalizing and delivering the project results. The control phase involves monitoring the project progress and making necessary adjustments to ensure it stays on track.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding.
- B.
Technical solution.
- C.
Requirements management plan.
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education.
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and education.Explanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that the project manager is responsible for providing information, advice, and training to the team members and stakeholders involved in the project. This helps to ensure that everyone has a clear understanding of the project goals, objectives, and processes. By providing answers, guidance, and education, the project manager sets the foundation for a successful project by ensuring that everyone is on the same page and has the necessary knowledge and skills to contribute effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
Processes.
- B.
Priorities.
- C.
Requirements.
- D.
Technical solutions.
Correct Answer
C. Requirements.Explanation
The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and performance criteria that a cyberspace infrastructure capability must have in order to meet the needs and objectives of an organization or system. These documents serve as a guide for designing, developing, and implementing the necessary technical solutions and processes to fulfill the requirements. Priorities, on the other hand, refer to the order or ranking of importance of different requirements, while technical solutions are the actual tools, technologies, or systems used to meet the requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan.
- B.
Allied support plan.
- C.
Technical plan.
- D.
Material plan.
Correct Answer
A. Cost management plan.Explanation
The correct answer is the Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary components and details of a project. It includes various plans such as the scope management plan, schedule management plan, and cost management plan. The cost management plan specifically focuses on how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. It outlines the processes, tools, and techniques that will be used to manage costs throughout the project's lifecycle.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The status.
- B.
A milestone.
- C.
A deliverable.
- D.
The final result.
Correct Answer
C. A deliverable.Explanation
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a deliverable. A deliverable is a tangible or intangible item that is produced or provided as a result of completing a project. It can be a document, a software system, a physical product, or any other measurable outcome. Deliverables are typically defined and agreed upon at the beginning of a project and serve as the basis for project planning and execution. They are essential for assessing project progress and ensuring that the project meets its objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request.
- B.
Defect repairs.
- C.
Preventive action.
- D.
Corrective action.
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairs.Explanation
Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. This type of change request is made when there are errors or defects in the project that need to be fixed in order to align with the specified requirements. Preventive action, on the other hand, focuses on avoiding future issues, while corrective action addresses broader problems in the project. Status request is not related to correcting requirement specifications.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745.
- B.
AFTO Form 747.
- C.
AFTO Form 749.
- D.
AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747.Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to mark the end of a project and validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used by the Air Force to ensure that all necessary steps have been taken and all requirements have been met before considering a project complete. It serves as a formal record of the completion and success of the installation process.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A.
Major.
- B.
Minor.
- C.
Major and minor.
- D.
Major and critical.
Correct Answer
A. Major.Explanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed major. This means that there are certain issues or problems that are significant enough to impact the overall functioning and performance of the system. These exceptions are not minor or insignificant, but rather have a major impact on the system's ability to meet its intended operational requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up.
- B.
Controlling.
- C.
Organization.
- D.
Documenting.
Correct Answer
A. Follow-up.Explanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly checking on the status of tasks, monitoring progress, and addressing any issues or roadblocks that may arise. It helps to keep the project on track, identify potential problems early on, and take corrective actions as needed. Without proper follow-up, it is difficult to ensure that the project is moving forward as planned and that all necessary actions are being taken to achieve the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146.
- B.
AF Form 1747.
- C.
AFTO Form 46.
- D.
AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146.Explanation
AF Form 1146 is the correct answer because it is the form used to request changes during a project. The other forms listed, AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47, are not specifically used for this purpose. Therefore, AF Form 1146 is the most appropriate form to use when requesting changes during a project.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Communication squadron.
- D.
Implementing organization.
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organization.Explanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take the necessary actions to put the solution into practice and ensure its successful execution. The project monitor oversees the progress of the project, the project manager is responsible for overall project management, and the communication squadron handles communication-related tasks. However, it is the implementing organization that actually carries out the implementation of the technical solution.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Program action officer.
- D.
Program action monitor.
Correct Answer
C. Program action officer.Explanation
A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing various actions and activities within the program, ensuring that all tasks are completed on time and within budget. They work closely with the program manager to support the overall success of the program.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.Explanation
The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." The ITIL service life cycle consists of these four stages. Service design involves designing new or changed services based on the organization's strategy and requirements. Service transition focuses on transitioning the designed services into the live environment. Service operation involves managing and delivering the services on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement is an ongoing process of identifying and implementing improvements to the services.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement.
- B.
Service transition.
- C.
Service strategy.
- D.
Service design.
Correct Answer
C. Service strategy.Explanation
In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and customer needs, and then developing strategies to meet those needs through IT services. It involves defining the overall service strategy, identifying opportunities for improvement, and aligning IT services with business goals. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service design.
- B.
Service strategy.
- C.
Service transition.
- D.
Service operation.
Correct Answer
C. Service transition.Explanation
In the service transition stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, coordinating, and managing the transition of new or changed services into the operational environment. It includes activities such as testing, training, deployment, and release management to ensure a smooth transition and minimize any disruption to the live environment.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
B. 2. -
- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33–115.
- B.
AFI 33–150.
- C.
TO 00–33D–3001.
- D.
TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33–150.Explanation
AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides guidance on the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-115 is not relevant to CIPS, and TO 00-33D-3001 and TO 00-33D-3004 are technical orders that do not specifically address the use of CIPS.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders.
- B.
Trouble tickets.
- C.
Infrastructure requirements.
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer
A. Work orders.Explanation
The Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are used to request and track maintenance tasks and are typically used for smaller-scale enhancements that can be completed within a short timeframe.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Inorganic.
- D.
Self-Help.
Correct Answer
D. Self-Help.Explanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of using internal resources and personnel to accomplish tasks or projects without relying on external assistance or funding. This option allows the squadron to utilize their own resources and expertise to fund and support their communication needs, rather than relying on outside contracts or assistance.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
TO 00–33D–3003.
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–33D–3003.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00–33D–3003. This document is likely to contain a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. The other options, TO 00–33A–1001, Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), and Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), do not specifically mention providing a list of lead commands or SPOs.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer.
- B.
Affected Work Center.
- C.
Base Civil Engineer.
- D.
Project Managers.
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil Engineer.Explanation
To review and validate technical solutions, various stakeholders are required, including the Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers. These individuals possess the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the technical aspects of the solutions. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for this process. The role of a Base Civil Engineer primarily revolves around construction and maintenance projects, which may not directly relate to reviewing and validating technical solutions. Therefore, their involvement is not required in this particular context.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies.
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- C.
Requires additional manpower.
- D.
Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional funding.Explanation
The given options list various causes for requirements to be considered special, such as requiring services from outside agencies, mobility equipment, and additional manpower. However, the option "Requires additional funding" does not fit into the category of causes for requirements to be considered special. While additional funding may be necessary for certain requirements, it does not inherently make them special.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
A. Concept Plan.Explanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. In other words, a concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach rather than the specific details of how the plan will be executed logistically.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
C. Supporting Plan.Explanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. This plan is designed to provide specific support and resources to the main operational plan. It outlines the actions, capabilities, and resources needed to support the overall mission and ensure its success. The supporting plan focuses on logistics, intelligence, communications, and other support functions that are crucial for the execution of the operational plan.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragrapH.Explanation
The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The explanation for this answer is that if the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). This means that the OPLAN contains the necessary information for base functional area support when detailed instructions are not provided.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures.
- B.
Administration.
- C.
Assumptions.
- D.
Logistics.
Correct Answer
D. Logistics.Explanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on how to ensure the availability and functionality of communication systems during wartime, including procedures for maintenance, repair, and supply chain management.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 17, 2016Quiz Created by
Connected12
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3DX7X Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top