2AX5X Air Force's Maintenance Capabilitie
The military is a special part in the smooth running of the government. The air force most of the times is a show of might within and outside the country. The quiz below tests on the Air Force's maintenance capabilities.
- 1.
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, wildlife, or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other man-made factors.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the percentage of accidents attribute to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
- A.
50
- B.
70
- C.
90
- D.
98
Correct Answer
D. 98Explanation
The correct answer is 98. This suggests that a large majority, or nearly all, accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This high percentage indicates that a significant portion of accidents can be prevented by addressing and mitigating these unsafe acts and physical hazards.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
- A.
Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks
- B.
TOs,, manuals, and CDCs
- C.
Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
- D.
TOs, handbooks, and CDCs
Correct Answer
C. Manuals, TOs, and handbooksExplanation
The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. When performing maintenance procedures, technicians use manuals, technical orders (TOs), and handbooks as directives to guide them through the process. These resources provide detailed instructions, procedures, and guidelines on how to properly maintain and repair equipment. By following these directives, technicians ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out correctly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen?
- A.
Initial
- B.
General
- C.
Supervisor's
- D.
Sustained job safety
Correct Answer
A. InitialExplanation
The correct answer is "Initial." Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase of training is typically conducted when individuals first join the Air Force and is designed to provide them with the essential knowledge and skills to ensure their safety and the safety of others in their work environment. It covers basic safety procedures, emergency response protocols, and familiarizes them with the specific hazards and risks associated with their job roles.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than
- A.
-2.0 percent
- B.
-1.0 percent
- C.
.1 percent
- D.
1.0 percent
Correct Answer
C. .1 percentExplanation
According to the given information, a chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets) if concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if the concentration of the chemical in a product or substance is equal to or exceeds 0.1 percent, it must be labeled as a carcinogen on the MSDSs.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
- A.
The US Air Force
- B.
Each MAJCOM
- C.
DOD
- D.
EPA
Correct Answer
D. EPAExplanation
The correct answer is EPA. EPA stands for the Environmental Protection Agency, which is responsible for creating and enforcing regulations related to hazardous waste management in the United States. The EPA sets guidelines and standards for the proper handling, storage, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. They work closely with other government agencies and organizations to ensure compliance with these rules and promote safe waste management practices.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed
- A.
30 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
90 days
- D.
120 days
Correct Answer
C. 90 daysExplanation
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is set to ensure the safe handling and disposal of hazardous materials. Storing hazardous materials for longer periods increases the risk of accidents, leaks, and environmental contamination. By limiting the storage duration to 90 days, organizations can minimize the potential hazards associated with these materials and ensure their timely and proper disposal.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What affects radiation hazards?
- A.
Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.
- B.
Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
- C.
Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.
- D.
Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units.
Correct Answer
B. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.Explanation
The factors that affect radiation hazards are the strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. The strength of emission refers to the intensity or power of the radiation source. The higher the strength of emission, the greater the potential for radiation hazards. The time of exposure is the duration of time that individuals are exposed to the radiation source. Longer exposure times increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards as certain weather patterns can influence the dispersion and concentration of radiation in the environment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then
- A.
Spray with cold water.
- B.
Cool with forced air from a blower.
- C.
Cool with high-pressure compressed air.
- D.
Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
Correct Answer
D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.Explanation
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brake assembly should be left to cool down naturally without any external cooling methods. This is the safest approach as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually and reduces the risk of further damage or accidents. Spraying with cold water, cooling with forced air, or using high-pressure compressed air can potentially cause thermal shock or other issues, so they are not recommended.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of
- A.
15 degrees
- B.
45 degrees
- C.
65 degrees
- D.
95 degrees
Correct Answer
B. 45 degreesExplanation
The correct answer is 45 degrees because the noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest in the direction of the engine's exhaust. As the exhaust gases exit the engine, they create a high-pressure area that generates intense noise. The noise intensity decreases as you move away from the rear of the engine. At an angle of 45 degrees to either side, the noise is still significant but not as intense as directly behind the engine.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Emotional irritability
- C.
A feeling of emptiness
- D.
Impaired mental concentration
Correct Answer
C. A feeling of emptinessExplanation
A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily manifests as physical and mental symptoms. Dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue due to prolonged exposure to loud and excessive noise. However, a feeling of emptiness is not typically linked to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?
- A.
Crew chief
- B.
Flight engineer
- C.
Weapons personnel
- D.
Only senior personnel on special orders
Correct Answer
C. Weapons personnelExplanation
Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm such devices safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have different responsibilities related to the aircraft and its operation, but they are not specifically trained in handling explosive devices. Only senior personnel on special orders may have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of live ammunition, but they may not have the specialized knowledge required to remove safety devices.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must
- A.
Install shorting plugs and clips.
- B.
Install mechanical safety devices.
- C.
Remove all ammunition and explosives.
- D.
Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.
Correct Answer
C. Remove all ammunition and explosives.Explanation
Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of the hangar and prevent any accidental detonation or explosion. By removing the ammunition and explosives, the risk of any potential accidents or damage is minimized, making it a necessary precautionary measure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
All composite material-related safety and training must be documented on which AF IMT form?
- A.
55
- B.
457
- C.
623
- D.
1297
Correct Answer
A. 55 -
- 15.
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
- A.
Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.
- B.
Follow MAJCOM guidelines.
- C.
Identify all possible sources of FOD.
- D.
Educate all personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Identify all possible sources of FOD.Explanation
In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step allows for a comprehensive understanding of the potential causes and locations of FOD, which is essential for implementing preventive measures. By identifying these sources, organizations can take appropriate actions to minimize or eliminate them, reducing the risk of FOD-related incidents and damage to equipment. This step lays the foundation for a successful FOD prevention program by addressing the root causes and ensuring a proactive approach to maintaining a safe and clean environment.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
- A.
Logistics and operations group commanders.
- B.
Immediate supervisor.
- C.
Wing commander
- D.
Everyone.
Correct Answer
D. Everyone.Explanation
The correct answer is "Everyone." FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves all individuals within an organization. It is not limited to a specific group or individual. Each person, regardless of their role or position, should actively contribute to FOD prevention by being vigilant, following proper procedures, and reporting any potential hazards or debris. This shared responsibility ensures a safer and more efficient working environment for everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the
- A.
Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.
- B.
Wing vice commander.
- C.
Group commander.
- D.
Wing commander.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.Explanation
The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This means that these individuals have the authority to clear a red X and can take the necessary steps to resolve the issue of a lost tool.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In most units, who is responsible for investing dropped objects?
- A.
The FOD prevention office.
- B.
The operations commander.
- C.
The flight safety officer.
- D.
QA
Correct Answer
D. QAExplanation
QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investing dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance is a department or team within an organization that is responsible for ensuring that products or services meet specific quality standards. In the context of dropped objects, QA would investigate the incident, identify the root cause, and implement measures to prevent similar incidents in the future. This role is crucial in maintaining safety and preventing accidents in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
- A.
Red markings.
- B.
Black markings
- C.
Green markings
- D.
Orange markings
Correct Answer
C. Green markingsExplanation
The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the fire extinguisher. It is important to ensure that the pressure is within this range to ensure that the extinguisher will function properly and be able to effectively suppress fires. The red and black markings typically indicate low or high pressure levels, which may render the extinguisher ineffective or even dangerous to use.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a
- A.
15-foot radius
- B.
20-foot radius
- C.
25-foot radius
- D.
50-foot radius
Correct Answer
B. 20-foot radiusExplanation
The correct answer is a 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should maintain a distance of 20 feet from the area where the servicing is taking place. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of those individuals as nitrogen servicing can be potentially hazardous. By staying outside this radius, they can avoid any potential risks or accidents that may occur during the servicing process.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
- A.
Operations.
- B.
The aircrew.
- C.
Supervision.
- D.
The ground crew.
Correct Answer
B. The aircrew.Explanation
The correct answer is the aircrew. The preflight check is a crucial part of ensuring the safety and readiness of an aircraft before flight. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition. As the individuals who will be operating the aircraft, the aircrew is responsible for conducting this check to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could affect the flight. This helps to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working order and ready for takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the
- A.
Tail of the aircraft and at 30 degrees angle inboard of the engine being started.
- B.
Tail of the aircraft and at 30 degrees angle outboard of the engine being started.
- C.
Nose of the aircraft and at 45 degrees angle inboard of the engine being started.
- D.
Nose of the aircraft and at 45 degrees angle outboard of the engine being started.
Correct Answer
D. Nose of the aircraft and at 45 degrees angle outboard of the engine being started.Explanation
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This position allows you to have a clear view of the engine and any potential fire hazards, while also maintaining a safe distance from the engine exhaust and any potential debris that may be expelled during the start-up process.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
- A.
AFI 23-106
- B.
AFI 11-218
- C.
TO 00-25-172
- D.
TO 00-25-212
Correct Answer
B. AFI 11-218Explanation
AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is a reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This means that the information regarding hand signals that are recognized and used internationally can be found in this document. The other references listed do not specifically cover hand signals or may not be relevant to the topic.Rate this question:
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- 24.
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
- A.
Supervisor or vehicle operator.
- B.
Supervisor or brake operator.
- C.
Supervisor or wing walkers.
- D.
Supervisor only.
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor only.Explanation
The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order. This ensures that there is clear communication and coordination between the supervisor and the vehicle operator, brake operator, and wing walkers. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire towing operation and has the authority to determine when it is safe to move the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
- A.
Departmental, intermediate, and field
- B.
Organizational, field, and intermediate
- C.
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
- D.
Departmental, organizational, and depot
Correct Answer
C. Organizational, intermediate, and depotExplanation
The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This answer is based on the progression of maintenance capabilities in the Air Force. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the units themselves. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically done at a higher-level maintenance facility. Depot maintenance is the highest level of maintenance and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at specialized facilities. Therefore, the order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
- A.
Unscheduled
- B.
Preventive
- C.
Corrective
- D.
Protective
Correct Answer
B. PreventiveExplanation
Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive measures taken to prevent equipment failure or breakdowns. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. By conducting preventive maintenance, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they become major problems, reducing the chances of unexpected downtime and improving overall equipment reliability and availability.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Objectives of the MDD system include
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- B.
Calling, storing, retrieving base-level data
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- D.
Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
Correct Answer
D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level dataExplanation
The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and allow users to access and retrieve the data when needed. This functionality is important for maintaining and managing a large amount of data efficiently and effectively. By collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data, the MDD system can support various processes and operations that rely on accurate and up-to-date information.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system data base?
- A.
Damaged and spare items
- B.
Expired and outdated items
- C.
Recurring and repeat replacement items
- D.
Select serially controlled and time change items
Correct Answer
D. Select serially controlled and time change itemsExplanation
The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the system ensures that items that are controlled by serial numbers and items that require regular time-based changes are accurately recorded and updated in the database. This helps in tracking and managing these specific items effectively, ensuring that they are properly maintained and replaced when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
- A.
781A
- B.
781F
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
B. 781FExplanation
The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
- A.
Before the first flight of the day
- B.
Before each thruflight inspection
- C.
After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
- D.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
Correct Answer
C. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefingExplanation
The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document aircraft maintenance actions. It needs to be removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This suggests that the form is no longer needed for the current maintenance event and can be filed or stored elsewhere. Removing it from the forms binder helps to keep the binder organized and ensures that only relevant and current forms are readily accessible.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
- A.
781G
- B.
781J
- C.
781M
- D.
781P
Correct Answer
B. 781JExplanation
The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J is a form used by the United States Air Force to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for documenting engine-related information and maintenance activities. It allows technicians to track and analyze engine performance, identify potential issues, and take appropriate corrective actions. By using the AFTO 781J, the Air Force can ensure the safety and reliability of its aircraft engines.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
- A.
Base supply coordinator
- B.
Critical item liaison
- C.
Equipment liaison
- D.
Item managers
Correct Answer
D. Item managersExplanation
Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item and decide whether it requires historical reporting or not. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items, including inventory control, procurement, and maintenance. Therefore, they are the appropriate authority to determine the need for historical reporting for items in the MDS specific -6 TO.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
- A.
MAJCOM level
- B.
Wing level
- C.
Base level
- D.
Unit level
Correct Answer
D. Unit levelExplanation
The IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources. It allows them to effectively manage maintenance activities at different levels of the organization. The correct answer, "unit level," refers to the lowest level of the organization where maintenance activities are managed. At this level, managers have direct control over resources and can allocate them according to specific unit needs. The IMDS helps in tracking and managing maintenance tasks, ensuring efficient resource utilization, and improving overall maintenance operations at the unit level.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
- A.
Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty
- B.
Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training
- C.
Helping evaluate the training of new personnel
- D.
Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel training
Correct Answer
D. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel trainingExplanation
The training management subsystem is designed to assist trainers and supervisors in various ways. One of its functions is to help with forecasting and scheduling personnel training. This means that the subsystem helps in predicting future training needs and creating a schedule for personnel to undergo training accordingly. By doing so, it ensures that the right people receive the necessary training at the right time, maximizing efficiency and effectiveness in the training process. This feature of the subsystem is crucial in ensuring that the organization's training requirements are met and that personnel are adequately prepared for their roles and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program?
- A.
Within 60 days of arrivals
- B.
Upon duty position assignment
- C.
When someone changes duty positions
- D.
30 days after in-processing new personnel
Correct Answer
A. Within 60 days of arrivalsExplanation
The initial evaluation in a training program should be accomplished within 60 days of arrivals. This allows enough time for new personnel to settle in and become familiar with their surroundings before undergoing an evaluation. By conducting the evaluation within this timeframe, trainers can assess the progress and performance of individuals early on and make any necessary adjustments to the training program. This ensures that new personnel receive the necessary support and guidance to succeed in their duty positions.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The GAS is normally sent out
- A.
90 days after graduation
- B.
6 months after graduation
- C.
Within 10 work days after graduation
- D.
Within 10 calendar days after graduation
Correct Answer
A. 90 days after graduationExplanation
The GAS (Graduate Assessment Survey) is typically sent out 90 days after graduation. This timeframe allows for graduates to have some time to settle into their post-graduation lives and reflect on their educational experience. It also allows for a sufficient amount of time for graduates to gather their thoughts and provide meaningful feedback on their education.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
- A.
CFETP, Part 1
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
Command JQS
- D.
CFETP, Part 2
Correct Answer
D. CFETP, Part 2Explanation
CFETP, Part 2 is the correct answer because the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines all the training courses available for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part 2 specifically focuses on the training courses and requirements for a particular AFSC. Therefore, if someone is looking for a list of training courses available for an AFSC, they would find it in CFETP, Part 2.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global real-time
- A.
Access to Distance Learning courseware.
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
- D.
Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.Explanation
The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that the TBA (presumably a software or platform) allows Air Force personnel to see and track their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses in real-time. It provides a way for individuals to monitor and manage their professional development and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
- A.
Training
- B.
Aircraft
- C.
Reference
- D.
Operational
Correct Answer
C. ReferenceExplanation
The reference TO library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains information that is not time-sensitive. Reference materials typically consist of manuals, handbooks, and other resources that provide general information and guidelines, rather than specific operational procedures or training materials. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational TO libraries, which require regular updates to reflect the latest regulations, procedures, and equipment changes, the reference TO library can remain unchanged for longer periods.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
There is only one Air Force TO catalog, as indicated by the answer choice "1". This suggests that there is only a single catalog that contains all the necessary technical orders for the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
- A.
Trouble
- B.
Remedy
- C.
Section 2
- D.
Probable Cause
Correct Answer
B. RemedyExplanation
The column in the TS manual that gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses is the "Remedy" column. This column provides guidance on what actions to take when encountering a specific issue or problem, and it also lists two possible solutions or responses that can be implemented to resolve the issue.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
B. Urgent actionExplanation
A TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page indicates that it requires urgent action. This means that the issue addressed in the TCTO poses a significant risk or has a time-sensitive deadline that needs to be addressed promptly. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to draw attention and emphasize the urgency of the action required.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
- A.
00-1-01
- B.
00-5-1
- C.
00-20 series
- D.
00-25 series
Correct Answer
B. 00-5-1Explanation
The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22. The other options, 00-1-01, 00-20 series, and 00-25 series, do not specifically address the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
- A.
Waiver
- B.
Urgent
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
Correct Answer
B. UrgentExplanation
The TO improvement report type that requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency is "Urgent". This report type signifies that immediate action is needed to address the deficiency in order to prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
- A.
Directory
- B.
Pamphlet
- C.
Instruction
- D.
Supplement
Correct Answer
B. PampHletExplanation
A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can cite forms and provide guidance on completing them. However, it lacks the authority to enforce what is on the form. A pamphlet is typically used to provide information or educate readers on a particular topic, but it does not have the power to enforce compliance or dictate actions. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Atmoshperic pressure at sea level is
- A.
14.7 pounds per square inch
- B.
17.4 psi
- C.
29.92 psi
- D.
29.29 psi
Correct Answer
A. 14.7 pounds per square inchExplanation
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is commonly measured as 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). This is the average pressure exerted by the weight of the Earth's atmosphere on a unit area at sea level. It is a standard reference point for measuring atmospheric pressure and is often used in various applications such as weather forecasting, aviation, and diving.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
- A.
Pounds per square inch.
- B.
Inches of mercury.
- C.
Milibars of alcohol.
- D.
Ounces of air.
Correct Answer
B. Inches of mercury.Explanation
A barometer is designed to measure pressure, and the most commonly used unit for measuring pressure is inches of mercury. In a barometer, the pressure is measured by the height of a column of mercury in a tube. The higher the column of mercury, the greater the atmospheric pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is inches of mercury.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is
- A.
Lift.
- B.
Drag.
- C.
Thrust.
- D.
Weight.
Correct Answer
D. Weight.Explanation
The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is weight. Weight is the force exerted by gravity on an object and acts vertically downwards. When an aircraft is in flight, it needs to generate enough lift to overcome the weight and stay airborne. Lift is the upward force created by the airfoil shape of the wings. Drag is the resistance force experienced by the aircraft as it moves through the air, and thrust is the force produced by the engines to propel the aircraft forward. However, the primary force that needs to be overcome is the weight of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of relative wind is
- A.
Lift.
- B.
Drag.
- C.
Thrust.
- D.
Weight.
Correct Answer
A. Lift.Explanation
When an object moves through the air, it experiences a force called lift. Lift is a force that acts perpendicular to the direction of the relative wind. It is responsible for keeping an object, such as an airplane, in the air. Drag is a force that opposes the motion of the object through the air. Thrust is the force that propels an object forward. Weight is the force exerted on an object due to gravity. Therefore, the force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of relative wind is lift.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is
- A.
Lift.
- B.
Drag.
- C.
Gravity.
- D.
Weight.
Correct Answer
B. Drag.Explanation
Drag is the force that acts parallel to the relative wind. It is a resistive force that opposes the motion of an object through a fluid, such as air. In the context of aerodynamics, drag is caused by the interaction between the object and the air molecules. It is an important factor to consider in designing efficient and streamlined objects, as minimizing drag can reduce energy consumption and increase speed.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 30, 2013Quiz Created by
Bigdawg
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