1.
(201) A shipper is responsible for...
Correct Answer
A. Planning, assembling, and consolidating, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement.
Explanation
A shipper is responsible for planning, assembling, and consolidating, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement. This includes tasks such as determining the best way to package and organize the items, ensuring that all necessary documentation is completed accurately, and making arrangements for transportation and delivery. This role requires careful coordination and attention to detail to ensure that the shipment reaches its destination safely and on time.
2.
(201) The ATCMD is not used to...
Correct Answer
B. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information.
Explanation
The ATCMD is not used to allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information. The purpose of the ATCMD is to provide a way to process a shipment through the ACA, allow the APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment, and provide notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.
3.
(201) The shipper's second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to...
Correct Answer
C. Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384.
Explanation
The shipper's second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to use all the information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384. This form is a shipping document that contains important details about the shipment, such as the type and quantity of goods, the origin and destination, and any special instructions or requirements. By preparing this form accurately, the shipper ensures that all necessary information is documented and communicated to the appropriate parties involved in the shipping process.
4.
(201) Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?
Correct Answer
B. The receiver.
Explanation
The receiver is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags. Once the shipment is received, it is their duty to check if all items are present and accounted for. They are also responsible for removing any RFID tags that may be attached to the items. This is important for inventory management and tracking purposes. The shipper is responsible for packaging and shipping the items, while the transshipper is responsible for transferring the shipment between different modes of transportation. The CSB (Central Shipping Bureau) is not directly involved in the process of ensuring the completeness of the shipment or removing RFID tags.
5.
(201) When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
Correct Answer
D. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field.
Explanation
The shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, is considered cleared by the ACA when the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field. This means that if the ACA does not raise any concerns or issues with the shipment within the specified time frame, it is considered cleared. This indicates that all necessary checks and procedures have been completed and the shipment can proceed without any further action or intervention from the ACA.
6.
(202) What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the TCMD?
Correct Answer
D. The DODAAC.
Explanation
The consignor/consignee blocks of the TCMD are represented by the DODAAC. DODAAC stands for Department of Defense Activity Address Code, which is a unique code assigned to each DoD activity that identifies the consignor or consignee in logistics transactions. It is used to track and manage the movement of goods and materials within the DoD supply chain.
7.
(202) You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a DODAAC when...
Correct Answer
C. The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.
Explanation
When the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC, you can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a DODAAC. This allows for the identification and tracking of shipments even when the specific DODAAC is not available.
8.
(202) You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?
Correct Answer
C. 15th.
Explanation
A unit move TCN refers to a Tactical Control Number used in military communication. In this context, a TCN with a zero in the 15th position can be readily identified. This indicates that the TCN is a unit move, as the zero in the 15th position signifies the movement of a military unit.
9.
(202) Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?
Correct Answer
B. 16th.
Explanation
The 16th position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment. This means that within the TCN (Transportation Control Number), which is a unique identifier for a shipment, the 16th position is used to indicate that the shipment is only a partial shipment, meaning that not all of the items or goods have been included in this particular shipment.
10.
(202) Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
Correct Answer
C. TP-3.
Explanation
TP-3 includes shipments requiring routine transportation. This means that TP-3 is the transportation plan that is specifically designed for transporting shipments that are considered routine. The other transportation plans, TP-1, TP-2, and TP-4, may have different purposes or requirements, but TP-3 is the one that is suitable for routine transportation.
11.
(202) Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
Correct Answer
D. TP-4.
Explanation
TP-4 is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft. This means that TP-4 shipments are not given high priority and are only transported if there is available space on the aircraft. It suggests that TP-4 shipments may experience delays and may not be guaranteed to be transported on a specific aircraft or within a specific timeframe.
12.
(202) The three-position date shipped code is compromised of the...
Correct Answer
C. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
Explanation
The correct answer is GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date. This means that the three-position date shipped code is made up of the GMT hour code, which represents the time of shipment, and the last two digits of the Julian date, which represents the day of the year. This combination allows for accurate tracking and identification of the shipment's date and time.
13.
(202) You use the TACs to...
Correct Answer
C. Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.
Explanation
The TACs (Transportation Account Codes) are used to link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments. This means that the TACs help connect the authorization to move the shipment, the approved funding for the shipment, and the accounting information related to the shipment. This ensures that all necessary information is linked together and tracked accurately for each shipment. The other options mentioned, such as identifying shipments that require special recognition or indicating the number of days in transit, are not the primary purpose of TACs.
14.
(203) When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for...
Correct Answer
D. Correct NSNs.
Explanation
When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, it is important to inspect for matching documentation, signs of damage or pilferage, and appropriate markings and labels. However, correct NSNs (National Stock Numbers) do not need to be inspected during this process. NSNs are unique identifiers used to classify and track items in the military supply chain. Inspecting for correct NSNs would typically be done during the requisitioning or ordering process, rather than during the receipt of the shipment.
15.
(203) On the automated versions of the DD Form 1387, which three areas must have a bar code?
Correct Answer
D. The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks.
Explanation
On the automated versions of the DD Form 1387, the TCN (Transportation Control Number), the DODAAC (Department of Defense Activity Address Code), and the piece number blocks must have a bar code. These bar codes are used to facilitate automated tracking and identification of the items being shipped.
16.
(203) You may use the manual version of the DD Form 1387...
Correct Answer
C. For contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments.
Explanation
The manual version of the DD Form 1387 may be used for contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments. This suggests that there are certain situations where automated methods may not be feasible or available, and in such cases, the manual version of the form can be used to ensure proper documentation of shipments.
17.
(203) What is/are the source document(s) for completing the MSL?
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1384.
Explanation
The source document for completing the MSL is the DD Form 1384.
18.
(203) You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
Correct Answer
B. 10.
Explanation
The correct answer is 10. This means that you need to place two MSLs on any item that is over 10 cubic feet in size. MSL stands for Material Storage Level, which is a system used to organize and track inventory. Placing two MSLs on larger items helps ensure that they are properly stored and accounted for.
19.
(203) When a shipment with discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it...
Correct Answer
B. When the shipper delivers the shipment.
Explanation
When a shipment with discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it when the shipper delivers the shipment. This means that if the shipper is the one delivering the shipment and there is a discrepancy, you have the right to refuse it. However, if an intermediate carrier or an AMC aircraft delivers the shipment, you may not have the same authority to refuse it.
20.
(203) You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal...
Correct Answer
C. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
Explanation
When a discrepancy is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to correct it immediately. This ensures that the shipment is accurate and that any errors or discrepancies are resolved promptly. By addressing minor discrepancies right away, it helps to maintain the integrity of the shipment and ensures that the correct cargo is delivered to the intended recipient.
21.
(203) Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
Correct Answer
C. AMC Form 33.
Explanation
The correct answer is AMC Form 33. This form is used to frustrate a shipment, which means to cancel or delay the delivery of the shipment. The form is typically used in the transportation and logistics industry to notify carriers and other parties involved in the shipment that there is a change in the delivery schedule or that the shipment needs to be held or returned. It allows for proper documentation and communication of the frustration request to ensure that the shipment is handled accordingly.
22.
(203) Which agency is responsible for correcting shipments you frustrate?
Correct Answer
D. CSB/ACA.
Explanation
The CSB/ACA (Cargo Service Branch/Air Cargo Agency) is responsible for correcting shipments that are frustrated. They handle the necessary actions and procedures to rectify any issues or errors with the shipments.
23.
(204) Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does it represent?
Correct Answer
B. The SET.
Explanation
When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the SET (Scheduled Equipment Time). The SET is the scheduled time for the aircraft's arrival.
24.
(204) Which criteria do you use to determine which cargo to process first?
Correct Answer
B. Destination, transportation priority, and SET.
Explanation
The criteria used to determine which cargo to process first are destination, transportation priority, and SET. The destination is important because it indicates where the cargo needs to be delivered, and prioritizing based on transportation priority ensures that urgent shipments are given precedence. SET, which stands for Special Equipment Team, likely refers to a team responsible for handling special equipment or cargo, and prioritizing based on this factor ensures efficient allocation of resources.
25.
(204) When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the...
Correct Answer
B. Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.
Explanation
When the SET (Shipment Execution Team) is equal for two or more shipments, the expedited handling indicators and the RDD (Requested Delivery Date) are used to determine which shipments are processed first. Expedited handling indicators provide information on shipments that require special handling or urgent processing, while the RDD indicates the desired delivery date for each shipment. By considering these factors, the shipments that require immediate attention or have a closer delivery deadline can be prioritized and processed first.
26.
(205) At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, the ATOC personnel will write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function?
Correct Answer
C. GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.
Explanation
The correct answer is GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner. This is because at manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, ATOC personnel need to provide accurate information about the aircraft block time. The GMT (Greenwich Mean Time) and Julian date (a system of numbering days) of the aircraft block time are important details that need to be included on the manifest. Placing this information in the top right-hand corner ensures that it is easily visible and accessible for the cargo processing function.
27.
(205) When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, you must...
Correct Answer
C. Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.
Explanation
When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, the best course of action is to prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action. This means that instead of waiting for the original manifests to arrive, which could cause delays and disrupt the flow of operations, a substitute manifest can be created based on available information. This allows for the processing of urgent cargo shipments to proceed without unnecessary delays, ensuring efficient handling of the aircraft's cargo.
28.
(205) If after six hours, ATOC personnel are unable to acquire the manifests for an aircraft, you must...
Correct Answer
A. Break each pallet down and take the appropriate information from the shipping labels.
Explanation
If after six hours, ATOC personnel are unable to acquire the manifests for an aircraft, the appropriate action is to break each pallet down and take the necessary information from the shipping labels. This is because the manifests contain important information about the cargo, such as its destination and handling instructions. By extracting this information from the shipping labels, the ATOC personnel can ensure that the cargo is processed correctly and handled according to the appropriate procedures. Storing the pallets out of the way or processing only certain types of cargo without manifests would not be sufficient or accurate in handling the situation.
29.
(205) A short shipment is a shipment that...
Correct Answer
C. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.
Explanation
A short shipment refers to a shipment that is listed on the manifest but did not arrive at the air terminal. This means that although the shipment was expected to be delivered, it did not reach its intended destination. This could be due to various reasons such as misplacement, theft, or logistical errors.
30.
(205) Which type of shipment is annotated by circling the line item on the manifest and hand-writing "S/S" on the right-hand margin next to the line item?
Correct Answer
A. Short.
Explanation
When a line item on the manifest is circled and "S/S" is handwritten on the right-hand margin next to it, it indicates a short shipment. This means that the actual quantity of the item received is less than what was originally expected or stated on the manifest.
31.
(205) An over shipment is a shipment that...
Correct Answer
B. Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.
Explanation
An over shipment is a shipment that arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest. This means that the shipment was not documented or accounted for in the official record of items being transported. It could be a mistake or an intentional omission, but either way, it indicates that there is an extra shipment that was not accounted for in the planning and tracking process.
32.
(205) Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write "O/S" on the right-hand margin next to the information you need?
Correct Answer
B. Over shipment.
Explanation
When there is an over shipment, meaning that more items were shipped than originally intended, it is necessary to annotate this on the manifest. By writing "O/S" on the right-hand margin next to the relevant information, it helps to indicate that there was an excess of items in the shipment. This annotation allows for proper documentation and tracking of the over shipment.
33.
(205) Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
Correct Answer
C. ATOC duty officer.
Explanation
The ATOC duty officer is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment. The ATOC duty officer is in charge of the Air Terminal Operations Center and is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all air transportation activities. They have the authority to investigate any incidents or issues related to shipments and take appropriate actions to address them. The SF duty officer, TMO/air freight, and CSB/ACA may also be involved in the investigation process, but the ATOC duty officer is the one primarily responsible for initiating it.
34.
(206) Which cargo may be turned over to the owning unit without an authorization letter?
Correct Answer
C. Unit mobility cargo.
Explanation
Unit mobility cargo may be turned over to the owning unit without an authorization letter because it is specifically designated for unit mobility purposes. This type of cargo is typically used for military operations and deployments, and therefore does not require additional authorization to be transferred to the owning unit. On the other hand, registered mail, classified cargo, and signature service cargo usually require authorization or specific protocols to be followed before they can be turned over to the owning unit.
35.
(206) You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except...
Correct Answer
D. TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
36.
(207) How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
Correct Answer
C. 17.
Explanation
The correct answer is 17. This means that the GATES HHTs provide access to 17 cargo applications.
37.
(207) You do not perform a soft reset when the HHT is...
Correct Answer
D. Suspended.
Explanation
When the HHT (Handheld Terminal) is suspended, it is in a state where it is temporarily inactive or paused. Performing a soft reset in this state would not be necessary as the device is already not actively running any processes. A soft reset is typically done when the device is active, awake, or hidden, to refresh its system and clear any temporary issues. Therefore, the correct answer is suspended.
38.
(208) An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the palelt to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
Correct Answer
B. 7,500.
Explanation
Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of weight.
39.
(208) You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
Correct Answer
B. Two.
Explanation
To safely winch a heavy pallet onto an aircraft, a minimum of two attaching points should be used. This is necessary to distribute the weight evenly and ensure stability during the loading process. Using only one attaching point may cause imbalance and potential damage to the aircraft or the pallet itself. Therefore, two attaching points are required for safe winching of the pallet.
40.
(208) You are deployed and cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?
Correct Answer
A. A thin film of road dust.
Explanation
A thin film of road dust is considered acceptable for air transportation. This implies that a small amount of dust on the cargo pallets is allowed, as long as it is only a thin layer and not excessive. This suggests that some level of dirt is expected during transportation, but it should not be excessive or pose a risk to the cargo or the aircraft.
41.
(208) A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base suport pallet?
Correct Answer
D. 50.
Explanation
The maximum number of pallets that can be shipped in one stack is 50. This is because the question states that adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, which means that the pallets can be stacked safely without any risk of damage. Therefore, there are no limitations mentioned in the question that would prevent stacking more than 50 pallets, making 50 the correct answer.
42.
(208) You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?
Correct Answer
D. DC-10.
Explanation
The DC-10 is the correct answer because it is the only aircraft listed that can accommodate a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. The C-5, C-17, and C-130 are all military transport aircraft, but they do not have the necessary configuration to support a multi-pallet train with one-inch couplers. The DC-10, on the other hand, is a wide-body commercial aircraft that has the space and configuration to accommodate such a train.
43.
(208) While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these serviceable tags?
Correct Answer
C. Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.
Explanation
The correct answer is to return the unserviceable RFID tags to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair. This is because the Defense Logistics Agency is responsible for managing and maintaining the inventory of military supplies, including RFID tags. By returning the unserviceable tags to them, they can repair or replace them as necessary, ensuring that the inventory remains accurate and functional.
44.
(209) You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the palelt. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
Correct Answer
C. Movement indicator and SET.
Explanation
When building a pallet with limited space for one more piece of cargo, the two factors to consider are the movement indicator and SET (Special Equipment Code). The movement indicator indicates the urgency or priority of the cargo, allowing you to prioritize time-sensitive or critical items. The SET determines the type of packaging or handling requirements for the cargo, ensuring that it is properly secured and transported. By considering both the movement indicator and SET, you can make an informed decision on which piece of cargo to add to the pallet.
45.
(209) You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?
Correct Answer
B. 150.
Explanation
When there is a difference of 150 pounds between the documented and actual weight of the cargo on an originating pallet, it is necessary to break down the pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo. This is done to ensure that the weight discrepancy is accurately identified and accounted for.
46.
(210) What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?
Correct Answer
D. MHE required to handle the pallet train.
Explanation
When building a multi-pallet train, it is important to consider the MHE (Material Handling Equipment) required to handle the pallet train. This means that the appropriate equipment, such as forklifts or pallet jacks, must be available and capable of safely and efficiently moving the multi-pallet train. Without the proper MHE, the process of building and handling the multi-pallet train could become difficult and potentially unsafe.
47.
(210) When using nets to secure multi-pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?
Correct Answer
D. 26,000 lbs.
Explanation
The correct answer is 26,000 lbs. This means that when using nets to secure multi-pallet trains that measure 96 inches or less, the maximum load for two and three pallet trains is 26,000 lbs.
48.
(211) You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?
Correct Answer
D. A single pallet.
Explanation
A single pallet is the only option that does not require marking with a C/B. The other options, such as the small piece of rolling stock, the shipment of pipes, and the three-pallet train, would all require marking with a C/B for identification and tracking purposes during the airlift process.
49.
(211) When marking the C/B on a vehicle the C/B marking must be positioned...
Correct Answer
D. Above each axle on both sides of the vehicle.
Explanation
The correct answer is "above each axle on both sides of the vehicle." This means that when marking the C/B (Center of Balance) on a vehicle, the marking should be positioned above each axle on both sides of the vehicle. This ensures that the weight distribution is balanced and helps maintain stability while the vehicle is in motion. Placing the marking above each axle on both sides allows for accurate measurement and adjustment of the vehicle's center of balance.
50.
(212) When preparing the AMC Form 39 for a pallet, which information belongs in the "Oldest SET" block?
Correct Answer
D. The GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet.
Explanation
The "Oldest SET" block in the AMC Form 39 is used to record the GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet. This information helps in tracking the chronological order of the items on the pallet. By noting the GMT hour/code of the oldest piece, it becomes easier to identify and locate specific items when needed.