Supply 7 Level Vol 1
- 1.
Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?
- A.
JFBAC
- B.
JFBBS
- C.
JFBCS
- D.
JFBCW
Correct Answer
B. JFBBSExplanation
The materiel management unit type code (UTC) JFBBS identifies the superintendent bare base support.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?
- A.
JFBDC
- B.
JFBMR
- C.
JFBCW
- D.
JFBMM
Correct Answer
C. JFBCWExplanation
JFBCW is the correct answer because it provides mobility support and expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, Program nominees must meet all of the following, except
- A.
Have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)
- B.
Be recommended by their wing commander
- C.
Have less than 15 years time in service
- D.
Possesses the rank of TSgt or MSgt
Correct Answer
B. Be recommended by their wing commanderExplanation
To qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, Program nominees must meet the following criteria: have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), have less than 15 years time in service, and possess the rank of TSgt or MSgt. The exception is that they do not need to be recommended by their wing commander.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?
- A.
Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA)
- B.
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC)
- C.
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R
Correct Answer
C. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R -
- 5.
Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
- A.
Logistics Operations
- B.
Command and control
- C.
Materiel Management
- D.
Deployment and Distribution
Correct Answer
D. Deployment and DistributionExplanation
The flight responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property is the Deployment and Distribution flight. This flight is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the logistics and transportation aspects of a wing's deployment operations, ensuring that all necessary resources, personnel, and equipment are efficiently and effectively deployed to the designated locations. Additionally, they are responsible for managing the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property, ensuring that everything is properly accounted for and delivered to the appropriate destinations.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?
- A.
AF Integration and Management.
- B.
AF Supply and Maintenance.
- C.
AF Plans and Scheduling.
- D.
AF Sustainment.
Correct Answer
D. AF Sustainment.Explanation
AF Sustainment is the correct answer because it refers to a specialized center that serves as the hub for integrating and managing maintenance and supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for ensuring the smooth operation and coordination of maintenance activities and the efficient management of the supply chain to support the overall mission of the organization. The other options, AF Integration and Management, AF Supply and Maintenance, and AF Plans and Scheduling, do not specifically mention the integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which supply class includes ammunition?
- A.
II
- B.
IV
- C.
V
- D.
VIII
Correct Answer
C. VExplanation
Supply class V includes ammunition. Supply classes are used to categorize and manage different types of supplies in the military. Class V specifically refers to ammunition, explosives, and associated items. This class is crucial for maintaining and replenishing the military's stock of weapons and munitions.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What best describes supply class VII items?
- A.
Major end items
- B.
Construction
- C.
Subsistence
- D.
Ammunition
Correct Answer
A. Major end itemsExplanation
Supply class VII items are best described as major end items. Major end items refer to the final products or equipment that are ready for use or consumption. In the context of supply class VII, these items are typically large-scale equipment or systems that are used for military purposes. They are considered major assets and are crucial for the functioning and operations of the military. Therefore, major end items are the most appropriate description for supply class VII items.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?
- A.
X
- B.
IX
- C.
VIII
- D.
VII
Correct Answer
B. IXExplanation
Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This means that it covers a wide range of items necessary for repair and maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
- A.
Supply-chain operations reference
- B.
Air Expeditionary Forces
- C.
Unit Type Code
- D.
Operation plan
Correct Answer
A. Supply-chain operations referenceExplanation
Supply-chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. This framework helps organizations to standardize their supply chain processes, improve efficiency, and achieve better performance. It serves as a guide for organizations to benchmark their supply chain operations against industry standards and best practices, enabling them to identify areas for improvement and implement effective strategies. By providing a comprehensive and integrated structure, the supply-chain operations reference framework helps organizations optimize their supply chain operations and achieve their business objectives.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as
- A.
One month
- B.
Three months
- C.
Six months
- D.
One year
Correct Answer
D. One yearExplanation
Users have the ability to query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records for up to one year. This means that they can access and retrieve transaction history data that dates back to a period of one year.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
F
- D.
R
Correct Answer
D. RExplanation
The "R" releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is specifically for releveling purposes, which involves analyzing and adjusting stock levels based on demand and supply. By selecting the "R" flag, the inquiry will generate a summary of the stock number's requirements, allowing users to make informed decisions regarding the stock's replenishment and allocation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?
- A.
Joins
- B.
Sorts
- C.
Reports
- D.
Business Areas
Correct Answer
D. Business AreasExplanation
A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements is known as business areas. Business areas help organize and categorize data in a way that is relevant and meaningful to the users. It allows users to easily access and analyze data that is related to their specific needs or roles within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?
- A.
Multiple
- B.
Cross
- C.
Outer
- D.
Inner
Correct Answer
C. OuterExplanation
An outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. It includes all the records from one table and the matching records from the other table, and if there is no match, it includes null values for the unmatched records. This type of join is useful when you want to include all the data from one table, regardless of whether there is a matching record in the other table.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oils, and lubricants) and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?
- A.
In-transit visibility (ITV).
- B.
Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
A. In-transit visibility (ITV).Explanation
In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it refers to the tool that provides the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, non-unit cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property from origin to destination across military operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers—both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
A. Global Transportation Network (GTN).Explanation
The correct answer is Global Transportation Network (GTN). The GTN is a web-based automated command and control information system that supports transportation users and providers, both military and commercial. It provides an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities, allowing for efficient and effective transportation operations. It helps to track and manage the movement of cargo and personnel, ensuring timely and accurate delivery.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Global Decision Support System (GDSS). GDSS is the Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system that supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. GDSS provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and execution capabilities for the management of air transportation operations. It enables TACC to efficiently coordinate and control airlift missions, ensuring effective mission execution and resource allocation. GDSS plays a crucial role in enhancing the overall efficiency and effectiveness of AMC's airlift operations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?
- A.
Asset Visibility.
- B.
Air Force Hazardous Material.
- C.
Hazardous Material Information Resource.
- D.
Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information.
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information.Explanation
The correct answer is Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information. This system provides hazardous material managers with oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system. It ensures that only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?
- A.
Receiving Element
- B.
Customer Support Element
- C.
Equipment Management Element
- D.
AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity
Correct Answer
D. AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance ActivityExplanation
The AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports. This organization ensures that any issues or problems with equipment or systems are properly reported, addressed, and resolved. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and functionality of the equipment and systems used by the organization.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
A. IExplanation
The correct answer is I. Difficulty report (DIREP) category code I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating. This category code is used to indicate the most severe and critical issues that require immediate attention and resolution.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the problem is significant enough to disrupt the normal functioning of the computer, but it does not result in any permanent damage or loss of data.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
- A.
Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.
- B.
On an Air Force suggestion form.
- C.
In the next scheduled release.
- D.
As workload permits.
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled release.Explanation
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that does not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that it does not stop the processing of other tasks and can be corrected and resolved at a later time. The report may include issues or problems that are not urgent or critical, allowing them to be addressed when the workload permits in the next scheduled release.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
D. IVExplanation
Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies. This suggests that the category IV is specifically designated for minor program issues such as misspellings and other minor deficiencies. It is likely that the other categories (I, II, and III) are assigned for different types or levels of difficulties or program deficiencies.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?
- A.
Base supply reports and records.
- B.
Function’s last surveillance report.
- C.
Directives that apply to the function.
- D.
Function’s unit manning document.
Correct Answer
C. Directives that apply to the function.Explanation
Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start by researching the directives that apply to the function. These directives provide guidance and instructions on how the function should be conducted, ensuring that the surveillance visit is aligned with the established protocols and procedures. By reviewing the directives, one can gain a better understanding of the expectations and requirements for the function, allowing for a more effective and comprehensive surveillance visit.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?
- A.
Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.
- B.
Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.
- C.
Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.
- D.
Check in and out with the flight chief.
Correct Answer
D. Check in and out with the flight chief.Explanation
The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function because it ensures that the visit is properly documented and accounted for. Checking in and out with the flight chief allows for proper coordination and communication throughout the visit, ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed and any issues or concerns can be addressed. It also helps to maintain accountability and track the presence of visitors within the office.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
- A.
7
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
30
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time to review the report, gather any necessary information, and formulate a response. Waiting longer than 15 days may result in delays or potential issues with addressing any concerns or issues raised in the report.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?
- A.
Receiving section.
- B.
Customer service.
- C.
Quality assurance.
- D.
Computer operations.
Correct Answer
C. Quality assurance.Explanation
Quality assurance is the correct answer because it is responsible for ensuring that the products or services provided by an organization meet the required standards and specifications. In the context of materiel management and logistics readiness, quality assurance would be the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or LRS commander. They would be responsible for ensuring that the processes and procedures related to receiving, customer service, and computer operations are in line with the required quality standards.Rate this question:
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- 28.
An effective analysis program must be based on
- A.
Organizational objectives.
- B.
The analysis of operating instructions.
- C.
Management seminars.
- D.
Mission requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Organizational objectives.Explanation
An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because these objectives provide the overall direction and purpose for the analysis. By aligning the analysis program with the organization's goals and objectives, it ensures that the analysis is focused on addressing the specific needs and priorities of the organization. This helps in making informed decisions and taking appropriate actions to achieve the desired outcomes. Additionally, basing the analysis program on organizational objectives helps in measuring the effectiveness and success of the program by evaluating its impact on the achievement of these objectives.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?
- A.
Performance
- B.
Trend
- C.
Problem
- D.
Important
Correct Answer
B. TrendExplanation
Trend analysis is a type of analysis that identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms. It involves studying patterns and changes over a period of time to determine the direction and magnitude of change. By comparing current data to historical data or benchmarks, trends can be identified, and any deviations from the expected or desired standards can be highlighted. This helps in assessing performance and making informed decisions for improvement or corrective actions.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?
- A.
Inquiry results.
- B.
Difficulty reports.
- C.
Problem and trend analysis.
- D.
Statistics and source documents.
Correct Answer
D. Statistics and source documents.Explanation
Quality assurance needs statistics and source documents to perform an analysis. These documents provide valuable data and information that can be used to assess the quality of a product or process. Statistics help in measuring and analyzing performance metrics, while source documents provide the necessary context and details for conducting a thorough analysis. By utilizing these items, quality assurance can identify problems, trends, and areas for improvement, ultimately ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which is a common material management indicator?
- A.
Warehouse refusal.
- B.
Accountability officer refusal.
- C.
Percentage of maintenance part failures.
- D.
Percentage of maintenance part replacements without failures.
Correct Answer
A. Warehouse refusal.Explanation
A common material management indicator is warehouse refusal. This refers to the situation where a warehouse refuses to accept or store certain materials due to various reasons such as lack of space, quality issues, or incorrect documentation. It is an important indicator as it highlights potential issues in the supply chain and can help in identifying areas for improvement in material management processes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?
- A.
Training reports.
- B.
Part purchasing reports.
- C.
Base supply systems down time.
- D.
Top 5 percent of items purchased through base supply system.
Correct Answer
A. Training reports.Explanation
Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected because they provide information about the effectiveness of training programs and the skills and knowledge gained by employees. By analyzing training reports, management can identify any gaps in employee performance or areas where additional training may be needed, which can ultimately help in addressing problems and improving overall performance.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What are the keys to deficiency identification?
- A.
Personal visits and audits.
- B.
Source documents and reports.
- C.
Training and cross feed reports
- D.
Analysis and special analysis program.
Correct Answer
D. Analysis and special analysis program.Explanation
The keys to deficiency identification are analysis and special analysis program. This means that by conducting thorough analysis and utilizing specialized analysis programs, deficiencies can be identified. Personal visits and audits, source documents and reports, and training and cross feed reports may also contribute to deficiency identification, but the most effective approach is through analysis and special analysis programs.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
Maintenance officer.
- B.
All Air Force members and employees.
- C.
Management and systems flight.
- D.
Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC).
Correct Answer
B. All Air Force members and employees.Explanation
All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that every individual within the Air Force is responsible for taking care of government property and can be held accountable if they cause any harm to it.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?
- A.
12
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
The receiving activity must submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item within 24 hours. This ensures that any discrepancies in the supply of controlled items are promptly reported and addressed, allowing for timely resolution and replenishment of the item if necessary. It also helps in maintaining accurate inventory records and tracking the flow of controlled items within the supply chain.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?
- A.
Inspection.
- B.
Receiving.
- C.
Customer Support
- D.
Logistics readiness squadron.
Correct Answer
C. Customer SupportExplanation
The correct answer is Customer Support. In the context of supply discrepancy reports (SDR), customer support is responsible for keeping all the suspense copies of the reports. This means that any issues or discrepancies related to the supply are reported and stored by the customer support department. This ensures that all the necessary information regarding supply discrepancies is easily accessible and can be used for further investigation or resolution.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
45
Correct Answer
D. 45Explanation
The second follow-up is sent 45 days after the first follow-up to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR).Rate this question:
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- 38.
How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?
- A.
25 to 35.
- B.
10 to 20.
- C.
70 to 125.
- D.
55 to 109.
Correct Answer
D. 55 to 109.Explanation
After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it will take between 55 to 109 days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?
- A.
SIFS outside.
- B.
Supply Interface System (SIFS).
- C.
ADRSS II.
- D.
Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
Correct Answer
D. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).Explanation
The Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS) is the system that prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution. It is specifically designed for the purpose of submitting data reports and streamlining the supply chain process. SIFS, Supply Interface System (SIFS), and ADRSS II are not mentioned in the question and therefore are not relevant to the preparation of supply data reports for off-base distribution.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because
- A.
Local user files are purged monthly
- B.
SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.
- C.
SIFS images are stored on the Supply Management System computer.
- D.
The Air Force Equipment Management Sytem receives and stores duplicate images.
Correct Answer
B. SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.Explanation
Storing all SIFS images for backup into a local user file is unnecessary because SIFS already has its own recovery and contingency procedures in place. This means that in the event of any issues or data loss, SIFS is able to recover and restore the images without relying on the backup stored in the local user file. Therefore, storing duplicate images in the local user file is a duplication of effort and a waste of system resources.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?
- A.
Non-processed
- B.
Residue.
- C.
Control.
- D.
User
Correct Answer
B. Residue.Explanation
Residue files in the Supply Interface System (SIFS) are designed to clear any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched in a timely manner. These files help ensure that any unprocessed or leftover images are dealt with and resolved efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
- A.
Functional systems management section.
- B.
Individual flight chiefs.
- C.
Accountable officer.
- D.
Quality assurance element.
Correct Answer
A. Functional systems management section.Explanation
The residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report needs to be reviewed by the Functional Systems Management Section. This section is responsible for ensuring that users clear residue images in a timely manner. The other options, such as Individual Flight Chiefs, Accountable Officer, and Quality Assurance Element, do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will
- A.
Generate an edit report.
- B.
Corrupt it.
- C.
Correct any outdated data.
- D.
Cause requisition images to reject in the base supply system.
Correct Answer
B. Corrupt it.Explanation
Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will corrupt it. This means that any changes or modifications made to the file will result in it becoming damaged or unusable. It suggests that the edits may introduce errors or inconsistencies that render the file unreadable or inoperable. This could be due to accidental deletions, formatting issues, or incompatible changes made to the file's structure or content. Overall, the correct answer implies that any edits to the NARRATIVE file will have a negative impact on its integrity and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?
- A.
Limited management and system operation.
- B.
Limited operations.
- C.
Computer outage.
- D.
Degraded operation.
Correct Answer
D. Degraded operation.Explanation
Degraded operation is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How often are supply inventories completed?
- A.
Every six months.
- B.
Once per fiscal year.
- C.
Once per calendar year.
- D.
Once every eighteen months.
Correct Answer
B. Once per fiscal year.Explanation
Supply inventories are completed once per fiscal year, which is a period of twelve months used for financial reporting purposes. This is different from a calendar year, which is a period of twelve months starting from January 1st. Completing supply inventories once per fiscal year allows organizations to track and manage their inventory levels and make necessary adjustments to their supply chain and procurement processes.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?
- A.
Mobility shipment list.
- B.
Deployed item list.
- C.
M14 list accuracy.
- D.
R43 list accuracy.
Correct Answer
D. R43 list accuracy.Explanation
Deployed kit personnel rely on the accuracy of the R43 list to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations. The R43 list is likely a comprehensive inventory list that ensures that all necessary items are accounted for and in the correct location. By relying on the accuracy of this list, personnel can effectively track and manage their deployed equipment, minimizing confusion and disruptions to normal operations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
- A.
Management support.
- B.
Management notice.
- C.
Inquiry.
- D.
Reject.
Correct Answer
D. Reject.Explanation
When an error is detected during processing of a transaction in the Materiel Management System, the program that takes control of computer processing is the "Reject" program. This program is designed to handle errors and reject the transaction, ensuring that incorrect or faulty data is not processed further. It helps in maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the system by preventing erroneous transactions from being processed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?
- A.
D04.
- B.
D11.
- C.
D818.
- D.
D20.
Correct Answer
C. D818.Explanation
The correct answer is D818 because it is the only supply management listing that specifically mentions accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject. The other options (D04, D11, D20) do not provide any information about accountable rejects or reprocessing attempts.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?
- A.
Accountable officer.
- B.
Management and system officer.
- C.
Reject monitors.
- D.
Quality assurance personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Reject monitors.Explanation
Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program. This implies that they have the authority and responsibility to delete rejected items from the system. The other options, such as the accountable officer, management and system officer, and quality assurance personnel, do not specifically mention the ability to force-delete rejects using the reject processor program.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What supply management listing shows all rejects that have been cleared?
- A.
D04.
- B.
D818.
- C.
D20.
- D.
D11.
Correct Answer
C. D20.Explanation
The supply management listing that shows all rejects that have been cleared is D20.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 24, 2016Quiz Created by
Jce671
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