3DX5X U.R.E. Vol. 1
Volume 1 URE practice
- 1.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmision
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency TransmisionExplanation
001Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna SystemsExplanation
001Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
Core task
- B.
Duty competency
- C.
Core competency
- D.
Duty position task
Correct Answer
D. Duty position taskExplanation
002Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
003Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
003Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM)Explanation
003Rate this question:
-
- 7.
- Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
003Rate this question:
- 8.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
003Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
Modify local training
- B.
Allocate manpower
- C.
Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- D.
Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).Explanation
004Rate this question:
-
- 10.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Conduct climate training surveys
- B.
Develop Career Development Courses
- C.
Review the occupational analysis report
- D.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)Explanation
004Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME
- C.
MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)
- D.
AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPMExplanation
004Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- B.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- C.
On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
- D.
Occupational Analysis Program
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) programExplanation
005Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Quality Assessments
- B.
Quality Assurance
- C.
Quality System
- D.
Trend Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Quality AssuranceExplanation
006Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Technical Evaluation
- B.
Personnel Evaluation
- C.
Managerial Evaluation
- D.
Standard Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. Standard EvaluationExplanation
006Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
Trend analysis
- B.
Quality System
- C.
Quality Assessments
- D.
Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysisExplanation
006Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
Management Inspection (MI)
- B.
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- C.
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- D.
Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)Explanation
007Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Training Business Area
- C.
Telephone Management System
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer
A. RemedyExplanation
008Rate this question:
-
- 18.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 18
- C.
Title 32
- D.
Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
009Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
Title 3
- B.
Title 8
- C.
Title 10
- D.
Title 18
Correct Answer
C. Title 10Explanation
009Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- D.
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure CyberspaceExplanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
National Security Policy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure CyberspaceExplanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
National Security Policy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace OperationsExplanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 23.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 30
- C.
Title 50
- D.
Title 52
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 24.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
Covered relationships
- C.
Non-public information
- D.
Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationshipsExplanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
Covered relationship
- C.
Personal conflict of interest
- D.
None, this is not an example of an unethical situation
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationshipExplanation
010Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Securriity and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Securriity and Control SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I- NOSC)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 30.
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon SystemExplanation
011Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- B.
Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- C.
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- D.
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air ForceExplanation
012Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
Active and reactive
- B.
Evasive and decisive
- C.
Subversive and divisive
- D.
Offensive and defensive
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactiveExplanation
012Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
Counterintelligence (CI).
- B.
Operation Security (OPSEC).
- C.
Military deception (MILDEC).
- D.
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
C. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
012Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
Strategic Considerations
- B.
Military Strategic Framework
- C.
Implementation and Assessment
- D.
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning GuidanceExplanation
013Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- B.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- C.
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
- D.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)Explanation
013Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
644th Combat Communication Squadron
- B.
85th Engineering Installation Squadron
- C.
83th Network Operations Squadron
- D.
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation SquadronExplanation
014Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)Explanation
015Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC)
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC)Explanation
015Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
Manpower
- B.
Efficiency.
- C.
Reduce costs
- D.
Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
B. Efficiency.Explanation
015Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
2009
- B.
2010
- C.
2011
- D.
2012
Correct Answer
B. 2010Explanation
015Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- B.
Unified command and subordinate unified command
- C.
Functional command and geographical command
- D.
Unified command and functional command
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified commandExplanation
016Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- B.
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- C.
Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)
- D.
Joint Force Commander (JFC)
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC)Explanation
016Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
- B.
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
- C.
Unit type codes (UTC).
- D.
Stratum levels (SL).
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).Explanation
017Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
Coding.
- B.
Positioning
- C.
Tempo bands
- D.
Unit type code
Correct Answer
D. Unit type codeExplanation
017Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
Service Transition
- B.
Service Strategy
- C.
Service Contactt
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
C. Service ContacttExplanation
018Rate this question:
-
- 47.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Strategy
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service ImprovementExplanation
018Rate this question:
-
- 48.
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
- B.
Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment
- C.
Improve the effectiveness of the mission
- D.
Improve the efficiency of the mission
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environmentExplanation
019Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
Article 32
- B.
Article 40
- C.
Article 92
- D.
Article 100
Correct Answer
C. Article 92Explanation
019Rate this question:
-
- 50.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
C. SixExplanation
019Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 27, 2018Quiz Created by
Dmkogot
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A652 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A656 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2AX5X Quizzes
- 2AX7X Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 2T251 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3D153 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3DX7X Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 3P071 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top