NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills With This Quiz
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Step into the world of phlebotomy mastery with the NHA Phlebotomy Practice Test: Master Your Skills quiz. Are you ready to take this NHA phlebotomy practice test and test your knowledge? As you know, one of the most common ways to get a diagnosis is through phlebotomy—drawing blood to be analyzed by lab technicians. If you’re preparing for your NHA certification in this essential technique, this NHA phlebotomy practice test is perfect for testing what you remember from classwork.
Every question is followed by a detailed explanation, offering a comprehensive review of each answer’s rationale. This NHA practice test Read moreallows for a holistic learning experience, helping you understand phlebotomy techniques, ethical considerations, and best practices. Ideal for students or experienced professionals, this quiz is your tool for mastering phlebotomy skills. Don’t forget to share this free NHA phlebotomy practice test with others on the same certification journey!
NHA Phlebotomy Questions and Answers
- 1.
The pulmonic valve is situated between ____________________.
- A.
Upper and lower heart chambers
- B.
The right atrium and right ventricle
- C.
The right ventricle and pulmonary artery
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. The right ventricle and pulmonary arteryExplanation
The pulmonic valve, a cardiac structure, is strategically located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. Its vital role involves regulating blood flow, allowing blood to move from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation while preventing backflow into the heart chambers. This contributes to the heart's efficient pumping function.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The endocardium is in which layer of the heart?
- A.
Outer
- B.
Inner
- C.
Middle
- D.
Not defined
Correct Answer
B. InnerExplanation
The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart wall, composed of endothelial cells and connective tissue. It lines all the internal structures of the heart, including the four chambers (atria and ventricles) and the valves, creating a smooth surface that allows for efficient blood flow and prevents blood clots from forming. The endocardium also plays a role in regulating heart contractions and protecting the heart from infection.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?
- A.
Inner
- B.
Middle
- C.
Outer
- D.
Undefined
Correct Answer
C. OuterExplanation
The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart wall, forming a thin, transparent membrane that covers the heart's surface. It is composed of a single layer of mesothelial cells, along with connective tissue and adipose tissue (fat) that provide cushioning and protection for the heart.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What kind of blood do arteries and arterioles carry?
- A.
Deoxygenated
- B.
Oxygenated
- C.
Both
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. OxygenatedExplanation
Arteries and arterioles typically carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The exception is the pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. In systemic circulation, however, arteries and arterioles transport oxygen-rich blood to tissues and organs, which is essential for cellular respiration and overall bodily function.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What percentage of formed elements are erythrocytes?
- A.
60%
- B.
55%
- C.
99%
- D.
45%
Correct Answer
C. 99%Explanation
In a typical blood sample, erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up the majority of the formed elements. On average, erythrocytes account for about 99% of the formed elements in the blood. This means that erythrocytes comprise nearly 99% of the cellular components of blood, with the remaining formed elements, such as leukocytes (white blood cells) and platelets, making up only a small fraction of the total.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where do blood cells originate?
- A.
Heart
- B.
Lungs
- C.
Bone marrow
- D.
Capillaries
Correct Answer
C. Bone marrowExplanation
Blood cells originate in the bone marrow. The bone marrow is a soft tissue found inside the bones, and it is responsible for producing all types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These cells are essential for various functions in the body, such as carrying oxygen, fighting infections, and clotting blood. The bone marrow continuously produces and releases new blood cells into the bloodstream to maintain a healthy balance.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the normal lifespan of an RBC?
- A.
9-12 days
- B.
120 days
- C.
365 days
- D.
45 days
Correct Answer
B. 120 daysExplanation
The normal lifespan of a red blood cell (RBC) is 120 days. This means that on average, an RBC will circulate in the bloodstream for about 120 days before being removed by the body's immune system. This lifespan is important for maintaining healthy oxygen transport and overall blood function.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the function of a leukocyte?
- A.
Carry oxygen to cells
- B.
Protect from infection
- C.
Ais in clot formation
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Protect from infectionExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for protecting the body from infections. They are part of the immune system and are involved in recognizing and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, that can cause diseases. Leukocytes play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and maintaining overall health.Rate this question:
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- 9.
20%-40% of WBCs are composed of _______________.
- A.
Lymphocytes
- B.
Neutrophils
- C.
Basophils
- D.
Eosinophils
Correct Answer
A. LympHocytesExplanation
20%-40% of white blood cells (WBC) are lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. This high percentage of lymphocytes in the WBC count indicates the importance of these cells in maintaining a healthy immune response.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which WBC carries histamine?
- A.
Monocytes
- B.
Basophils
- C.
Eosinophils
- D.
Neutrophils
Correct Answer
B. BasopHilsExplanation
Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that carries histamine. Histamine is a chemical involved in the immune response and allergic reactions. Basophils release histamine in response to an allergen or an infection, causing blood vessels to dilate and increase blood flow to the affected area. This helps to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils are other types of WBCs, but they do not carry histamine.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Another name for thrombocytes is______________.
- A.
White blood cells
- B.
Red blood cells
- C.
Platelets
- D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
C. PlateletsExplanation
Platelets are another name for thrombocytes. Thrombocytes are small, colorless cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They are produced in the bone marrow and help in the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. Platelets are involved in the repair of damaged blood vessels and play a vital role in the body's immune response.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Hemostasis is defined as _______________.
- A.
Steady-state
- B.
Stoppage of food
- C.
Basil state
- D.
Cessation of bleeding
Correct Answer
D. Cessation of bleedingExplanation
Hemostasis is the process of stopping or preventing bleeding. It involves a series of events that occur to maintain the integrity of blood vessels and prevent excessive blood loss. This can be achieved through vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and blood clot formation. Therefore, the correct answer, "stoppage of blood," accurately describes the definition of hemostasis.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The first phase of hemostasis is _________________.
- A.
Platelet phase
- B.
Vascular stage
- C.
Fibrinolysis
- D.
Coagulation stage
Correct Answer
B. Vascular stageExplanation
The first phase of hemostasis is the vascular stage. During this stage, blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow and limit bleeding. This constriction is triggered by the release of chemicals from damaged blood vessels and surrounding tissues. The vascular stage helps to prevent excessive blood loss and prepares the area for the next phases of hemostasis, including platelet aggregation and blood clot formation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway is called ____________.
- A.
PT
- B.
APTT
- C.
LMN
- D.
PX
Correct Answer
B. APTTExplanation
The correct answer is APTT. APTT stands for Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time, which is a test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. This pathway is responsible for the formation of a blood clot. APTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot after certain activators are added. It is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy and to diagnose bleeding disorders.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is ______________.
- A.
Coagulation
- B.
Fibrinolysis
- C.
Vascular
- D.
Aggregation
Correct Answer
B. FibrinolysisExplanation
Fibrinolysis is the breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process. This process involves the activation of plasminogen, which is converted into plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms the mesh-like structure of a blood clot. Fibrinolysis helps to dissolve the clot and restore normal blood flow.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the preferred site for venipuncture?
- A.
Thrombotic vein
- B.
Antecubital fossa
- C.
Elbow
- D.
Ulnar vein
Correct Answer
B. Antecubital fossaExplanation
The preferred site for venipuncture is the antecubital fossa. This area is located in the bend of the elbow and is commonly used for venipuncture procedures because it is easily accessible and has a large network of veins. The antecubital fossa is also less likely to cause complications such as nerve damage or thrombosis compared to other sites like the ulnar vein or thrombotic vein.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Sclerosed veins feel ______________.
- A.
Spongy
- B.
Cordlike
- C.
Movable
- D.
Square
Correct Answer
B. CordlikeExplanation
Sclerosed veins feel cordlike because when veins become hardened or fibrotic due to conditions such as chronic venous insufficiency or varicose veins, they lose their elasticity and become thickened. This causes the veins to feel like cords or ropes under the skin.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Crooked or winding veins are also called ___________________.
- A.
Bad
- B.
Tortuous
- C.
Thrombotic
- D.
Sclerosed
Correct Answer
B. TortuousExplanation
Crooked or winding veins are also called "tortuous." This term describes veins that have a twisted or curved shape, often due to underlying conditions such as varicose veins or venous insufficiency. The word "tortuous" is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the abnormal appearance of veins.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture?
- A.
Betadine
- B.
Iodine
- C.
Isopropyl alcohol
- D.
Jack Daniels
Correct Answer
C. Isopropyl alcoholExplanation
Isopropyl alcohol is the preferred antiseptic for venipuncture because it effectively kills bacteria and other microorganisms on the skin, reducing the risk of infection. It is also less likely to cause skin irritation compared to iodine or betadine. Jack Daniels is not a suitable antiseptic for venipuncture as it is an alcoholic beverage and not a medical-grade antiseptic.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture?
- A.
2-3
- B.
1-1.5
- C.
2.5-3
- D.
2-2.58
Correct Answer
B. 1-1.5Explanation
The size (in inches) of the needle routinely used for venipuncture is 1-1.5 inches. This range is typical for the length of needles used for drawing blood, with a gauge size commonly between 21 and 23 for adult venipunctures.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is another name for winged infusion sets?
- A.
Caterpillar
- B.
Dragonfly
- C.
Butterfly
- D.
Beetlebug
Correct Answer
C. ButterflyExplanation
A winged infusion set is a medical device used for venipuncture, which is the process of accessing a vein for blood sampling or intravenous therapy. The set is called "butterfly" because of its design, which includes small plastic wings on either side of the needle. These wings allow for easier handling and stabilization during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?
- A.
To prevent the venous flow of blood
- B.
To make veins bulge
- C.
To make veins blue
- D.
To aid in vein location
Correct Answer
C. To make veins blueExplanation
The tourniquet is not used to make veins blue. It is primarily used to prevent the venous flow of blood, to make veins bulge, and to aid in vein location. Making veins blue is not the purpose of using a tourniquet.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A pad is used to protect the patient's clothing.
- A.
Flux
- B.
Chux
- C.
Tourniquet
- D.
Antiseptic
Correct Answer
B. ChuxExplanation
Chux is a type of absorbent pad that is commonly used in healthcare settings to protect and correct a patient's clothing. It is designed to absorb any fluids or spills and prevent them from soiling the patient's clothing or bedding. Chux pads are often used during procedures or examinations to provide a clean and dry surface for the patient. They are also used for incontinence care to protect against leaks and accidents. Overall, Chux pads are an essential tool in maintaining cleanliness and hygiene for patients in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The most common complication of phlebotomy.
- A.
Petechiae
- B.
Phlebitis
- C.
Hemoconcentration
- D.
Hematoma
Correct Answer
D. HematomaExplanation
Hematoma is the correct answer because it is the most common complication of phlebotomy. During phlebotomy, a hematoma can occur when blood leaks from the puncture site and collects under the skin, causing a localized swelling and bruising. This can happen if the needle punctures a larger blood vessel or if pressure is not applied to the puncture site after the procedure. Hematomas are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but in some cases, they may require medical intervention.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause ________________.
- A.
Hemolysis
- B.
Hemoconcentration
- C.
Septicemia
- D.
Thrombosis
Correct Answer
B. HemoconcentrationExplanation
Leaving the tourniquet on too long may cause hemoconcentration. This is because when a tourniquet is applied for an extended period of time, it restricts blood flow to the area beyond the tourniquet. As a result, the blood becomes more concentrated with red blood cells and other components, leading to hemoconcentration. This can have negative effects on the body, such as increased viscosity of the blood and impaired circulation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Tiny red spots on the skin caused by the rupturing of capillaries are called _____________.
- A.
Phlebitis
- B.
Trauma
- C.
Petechiae
- D.
Pimples
Correct Answer
C. PetechiaeExplanation
Petechiae are tiny red spots on the skin that occur when capillaries rupture and cause small amounts of blood to leak into the skin. This can be caused by various factors such as injury, certain medical conditions, or certain medications. Phlebitis refers to inflammation of a vein, trauma refers to physical injury, and pimples are small, raised bumps on the skin caused by blocked hair follicles.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Accumulation of fluid in the tissues.
- A.
Lipids
- B.
Edema
- C.
Fistula
- D.
Trauma
Correct Answer
B. EdemaExplanation
Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the tissues. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, injury, or underlying medical conditions. The excess fluid causes swelling and can be localized or generalized throughout the body. Edema can be a symptom of an underlying health issue, such as heart failure or kidney disease, or it can be a result of trauma or injury. Treatment for edema depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures to remove the excess fluid.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein.
- A.
Fistula
- B.
Fasting
- C.
Suture
- D.
Edema
Correct Answer
A. FistulaExplanation
A fistula is a permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein. This connection allows for improved blood flow and is commonly used in dialysis patients to create access for hemodialysis treatments. It is a preferred option because it has a lower risk of infection and lasts longer compared to other methods of vascular access.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which would be considered a pre-analytical error?
- A.
A. Improper time of collection
- B.
B. Wrong order of draw
- C.
C. Faulty technique
- D.
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer
D. D. Both A and BExplanation
Pre-analytical errors occur before the actual testing of a specimen begins. Improper time of collection (option A) and wrong order of draw (option B) are both examples of pre-analytical errors as they involve issues with the collection process itself. These errors can lead to inaccurate test results and affect patient care. Option C, faulty technique, would be considered an analytical error as it pertains to errors occurring during the actual analysis or testing of the specimen.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which would be considered a post-analytical error?
- A.
Improper site preparation
- B.
Medication interference
- C.
Failure to invert tubes
- D.
Improper use of serum separator
Correct Answer
D. Improper use of serum separatorExplanation
A post-analytical error occurs after the laboratory test has been performed, typically during the handling, processing, or reporting of results. Improper use of a serum separator is a post-analytical error because it can occur during the final stage of sample processing, leading to compromised results. The other options, such as improper site preparation (A), medication interference (B), and failure to invert tubes (C), are considered pre-analytical errors since they affect the sample before or during collection.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The most important step in a routine venipuncture.
- A.
Gathering equipment
- B.
Palpate veins
- C.
Identify patient
- D.
Tying the tourniquet
Correct Answer
C. Identify patientExplanation
Identifying the patient is the most important step in a routine venipuncture because it ensures that the correct patient is receiving the procedure. This step helps prevent any mix-ups or errors in patient identification, which is crucial for patient safety and accurate medical records. By confirming the patient's identity, healthcare professionals can proceed with the venipuncture confidently, knowing that they are providing the correct treatment to the right individual.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How many inches above the site should the tourniquet be tied?
- A.
2-3
- B.
3-4
- C.
4-5
- D.
1-2
Correct Answer
B. 3-4Explanation
The tourniquet should be tied approximately 3-4 inches above the site. This is the correct answer because tying the tourniquet too close to the site may not effectively stop the bleeding, while tying it too far above the site may cause unnecessary discomfort or restrict blood flow to the rest of the limb.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood?
- A.
Tube lost vacuum
- B.
Bevel of the needle against the vein side
- C.
Needle not fully in the vein
- D.
Patient drank too much liquid
Correct Answer
D. Patient drank too much liquidExplanation
The statement "patient drank too much liquid" is not typically a reason for failure to collect blood during venipuncture because excessive liquid intake does not directly affect the ability to access and draw blood from a vein. Instead, issues like vein visibility, needle placement, or equipment problems are more common causes of collection difficulties.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Tubes may lose their vacuum due to ______________________.
- A.
Manufacturing defects
- B.
Expired tube
- C.
A fine crack in the tube
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Tubes may lose their vacuum due to various factors, including manufacturing defects, expiration, and fine cracks in the tube. These issues compromise the integrity of the vacuum seal, affecting the tube's ability to maintain proper pressure for blood collection. Healthcare professionals must carefully assess tubes for potential defects to ensure accurate and reliable sample collection in clinical settings.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If the needle passes completely through the vein, you must pull it out of the arm and try another vein.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
False. If the needle passes completely through the vein during venipuncture, it's important not to pull it out immediately. Doing so could cause injury and bleeding. Instead, the needle should be withdrawn slightly and redirected to try to enter the vein again.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A butterfly needle is a smaller gauge needle that is used when a patient's vein collapses or is difficult to access. It is commonly used in situations where the evacuated tube system is being used to draw blood. The evacuated tube system involves using a vacuum to draw blood into the collection tubes. If the vein collapses during this process, a butterfly needle may be necessary to successfully draw blood. Therefore, the statement that using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system is true.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A person should refrain from eating for how many hours before a fasting blood test.
- A.
8-12
- B.
6-7
- C.
24-36
- D.
4-6
Correct Answer
A. 8-12Explanation
A person should sustain from eating for 8-12 hours prior to a fasting blood test. This is to ensure that the food you eat doesn't affect the results of the test, especially for things like glucose and cholesterol levels. Sources and related contentRate this question:
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- 38.
To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, what kind of specimen would be required?
- A.
Timed
- B.
Fasting
- C.
Therapeutic
- D.
Blood culture
Correct Answer
A. TimedExplanation
To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, a timed specimen would be required. This means that the specimen would need to be collected at specific intervals throughout the day to accurately capture the fluctuations of cortisol levels. This is because cortisol levels naturally vary throughout the day, with the highest levels typically occurring in the morning and the lowest levels in the evening. Therefore, a timed specimen would provide the most accurate representation of the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Postprandial means ______________.
- A.
After eating
- B.
After sleeping
- C.
After blood testing
- D.
After midnight
Correct Answer
A. After eatingExplanation
Postprandial means "after eating". It is a term used to describe the period of time that occurs after a meal. This term is commonly used in medical and scientific contexts to refer to the physiological changes that take place in the body after consuming food.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The OGTT test diagnoses ______________.
- A.
High blood pressure
- B.
Cholesterol
- C.
Diabetes
- D.
Hemoglobin
Correct Answer
C. DiabetesExplanation
The OGTT test, or Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, is used to diagnose diabetes. It measures how the body metabolizes glucose over a period of time. This test is particularly useful for detecting gestational diabetes in pregnant women and for diagnosing type 2 diabetes in individuals who may have impaired fasting glucose levels. By measuring blood glucose levels before and after consuming a glucose solution, healthcare providers can determine if a person has diabetes or is at risk for developing it.Rate this question:
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- 41.
In therapeutic blood monitoring, the trough levels are tested ______________.
- A.
30 minutes before the scheduled dose
- B.
30 minutes after the scheduled dose
- C.
2 hours postprandial
- D.
2 hours diurnal
Correct Answer
A. 30 minutes before the scheduled doseExplanation
In therapeutic blood monitoring, trough levels are tested 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. This timing allows healthcare professionals to measure the lowest concentration of a drug in a patient's bloodstream just before the next dose is administered. By testing the trough levels before the scheduled dose, healthcare professionals can ensure that the drug is being effectively absorbed and metabolized by the patient's body. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and frequency of administration for optimal therapeutic effects.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Blood cultures are used to diagnose ________________.
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
FUO
- C.
FAQ
- D.
PT
Correct Answer
B. FUOExplanation
Blood cultures are used to diagnose FUO, which stands for Fever of Unknown Origin. This condition refers to a persistent fever that cannot be explained by common causes such as infections or inflammatory diseases. Blood cultures are performed to identify any bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream that may be causing the fever. By isolating and identifying the causative organism, appropriate treatment can be initiated to resolve the fever and underlying infection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on?
- A.
Toe
- B.
Finger
- C.
Heel
- D.
Forehead
Correct Answer
C. HeelExplanation
A PKU test, also known as a newborn screening test, is performed on the heel of an infant. This is because the heel is a convenient and accessible spot for collecting a small blood sample. The test is done to check for the presence of phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to process an amino acid called phenylalanine. By performing the test on the heel, healthcare professionals can quickly and easily obtain the necessary blood sample to screen for PKU in newborns.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What special handling does a cold agglutinin test require?
- A.
Ice bath
- B.
Sitz bath
- C.
Pre-warmed tubes
- D.
Chilling
Correct Answer
C. Pre-warmed tubesExplanation
A cold agglutinin test requires pre-warmed tubes because cold agglutinins are antibodies that can cause red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. By pre-warming the tubes, the test can be performed at a temperature that prevents the agglutination of red blood cells, ensuring accurate results.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What special handling does an ABG require?
- A.
Warming
- B.
Chilling
- C.
Shaking
- D.
Pre-warmed tubes
Correct Answer
B. ChillingExplanation
An ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) requires special handling in terms of chilling. This means that the sample needs to be kept at a cold temperature to preserve its integrity and prevent any changes in the blood gas levels. Chilling the ABG sample helps to slow down any metabolic processes that could alter the results. It is important to handle and transport the sample carefully to maintain its accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which test is NOT a light-sensitive test?
- A.
Bilirubin
- B.
Beta-carotene
- C.
Porphyrins
- D.
Ammonia
Correct Answer
D. AmmoniaExplanation
Ammonia is not a light-sensitive test because it does not require exposure to light for accurate results. Light-sensitive tests, such as bilirubin, beta-carotene, and porphyrins, rely on light absorption or emission to measure the concentration or presence of these substances. However, ammonia testing does not involve light-sensitive reactions and can be performed without the need for light.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant?
- A.
2.0mm
- B.
1.2mm
- C.
3.0mm
- D.
.02mm
Correct Answer
A. 2.0mmExplanation
The recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant is 2.0mm. This depth allows for an adequate amount of blood to be collected for testing purposes without causing excessive pain or injury to the infant.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Blood culture tests can be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Blood culture tests cannot be done with a dermal puncture when venipuncture is not possible. Venipuncture is the preferred method for obtaining blood samples for culture tests as it allows for a larger volume of blood to be collected, reducing the risk of contamination and increasing the chances of detecting any potential pathogens present in the bloodstream. Dermal puncture, on the other hand, is typically used for collecting small amounts of blood for other types of tests, such as glucose monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In the case of skin punctures, first tube in the order of draw for cap specimens is lavender.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In capillary blood collection (skin punctures), the first tube in the order of draw for capillary specimens is typically a lavender or purple microcollection tube, which is used for hematology tests like complete blood counts (CBC) and blood cell differentials. The is followed by chemistry and blood bank specimens. The order of draw may vary slightly depending on the specific tests required, but lavender tubes usually come first in capillary collections to ensure accurate hematological results.Rate this question:
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- 50.
In the order of draw for capillary specimens, should you draw tubes with or without additives first?
- A.
Without
- B.
With
Correct Answer
A. WithoutExplanation
When collecting capillary specimens, the correct order of draw is to fill tubes without additives first, followed by tubes with additives. This helps prevent contamination and ensures accurate test results, as the first blood to flow might contain tissue fluids or other contaminants, which could affect the additives in the tubes if drawn first.Rate this question:
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